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No. You actually read all that and missed it demonstrating dominion being given to man?
Some things are better not being dignified with a response. If all you've got is strawmen, I don't need to weigh in on that.
No. You actually read all that and missed it demonstrating dominion being given to man?
Apparently I'm a Prophet:
None of this answered my question.
By what testing procedure can I determine if something is OBJECTIVELY wrong?
But if you are right and there is an objective morality,
then it must apply to ALL morality.
So lets use the example of whether it is right to steal a loaf of bread to feed your starving family. If you are right, you shouldn't need to appeal to extremes, should you?
So answer me this. Is it objectively wrong to steal a loaf of bread so your starving family can eat?
But you don't understand. He deeply and intuitively feels that morality must be objective. Obviously that means it is.
If by objective you mean there's some grand cosmic law that determines genocide is wrong, then due to the fact I don't believe a grand cosmic law exists, the answer is no.
However, we can use reason, empathy and experience to see the effects of genocide on people, and societies. We can then use that reason to determine genocide is a horrible action in all circumstances and must not be tolerated.
Seeing as how some Biblical cultures embraced it, I'd have to say the evidence points to no. Of course the answer to your question has little to nothing to do with whether or not any particular person in this thread considers it wrong in their subjective opinion.
I am saying that normal human beings are empathetic.
It is an ability that we all have (except those who are mentally handicapped). We are able to put ourselves in other people's shoes using empathy. Along with our ability to use logic and reason, this allows us to determine which of our actions will cause pain or distress in others. We know from our own experiences what causes us pain and disress.
Their relativism prohibits persons from making statements regarding allegedly absolute moral obligation.
Their sujbectivism prohibits persons from making statements regarding allegedly objective moral obligation.
(IOW these people would be inconsistent when making claims which, when you make them, are merely unsupported assertions. Until anyone can demonstrate that objective/absolute morality exists somewhere out there it isn´t much of a loss being unable to make statements that refer to something we don´t have a reason to assume it even exists. Besides, your idea that making such umsustantiated assertions gives you some sort of advantage is strange.)
That´s all, and that´s trivial: After all, these are statements that aren´t meaningful from the pov of relativism/subjectivism, and naturally a subjectivist/objectivist doesn´t intend to make them (which actually was the point you were trying to make).
I´m glad to see you have abandoned your argument that there is no way of behaving consistently as a relativist/subjectivist, and to stating the obvious in an almost tautological way.
Remember when first he came here and kept asserting that atheists don´t exist?
In a rough estimation I must have spent more than 100 posts telling you what my position is in this matter - many of them very detailed, very exhaustive, very explanatory, very long posts. I have been very patient with you and your repetitive questions. It´s not like we need to pretend that we have to start from scratch.It is your position that moral values and duties are not objective but subjective or subject to the person correct?
No, that´s not what you said back then, liar.I said that no one actually lives as an atheist.
Morals didn't exist, until we figured out we got along better with, than without.
As an atheist, this view of yours is consistent with a naturalistic explanation of reality.
It is referred to broadly as the socio-biological evolutionary explanation for moral values and duties, i.e that our concept of morality is a by-product of evolutionary processes which aid in our survival and reproduction. Michael Ruse sums it up well in his work. This explanation for moral ontology is a common one used by atheists. Several people here including you espouse this view.
It is also a view which affirms the veracity of premise (1) of the moral argument:
1. If God does not exist, then objective moral values and duties do not exist.
Since on atheism, there is no transcendant and Ultimate Moral Law Giver, there simply is no good reason to think that certain moral behaviors are wrong in the objective sense. Hence, most atheists are moral relativists.
You stated previously that you do not believe slavery to be moral,
this too, makes you a moral relativist.
It seems to me that you are affirming premise (2) of the moral argument i.e. that objective moral values and duties do exist, but like Davian and Sam Harris, you believe they can be explained without appealing to God. Is this correct?
Because at one point in time, the god described in the OT allowed for and encouraged it. You no longer hold this to be moral. You have allowed your moral to change along with social consciousness, independent of your objective standard, and relative to current beliefs of morality.I am aware of the post you are referring to. Please, for the sake of discussion, supply my exact quote and the post it was in response to please.
Never mind, I have it here:
"Unless you advocate honor killings, and slavery, then your morals are relative also. You can't have it both ways, tiger."I do not advocate honor killings or slave trading.
Your reasoning for saying that is? How do you get moral relativism out of me saying that I do not advocate slave trading? When I say I do not advocate slave trading, I am saying that trading in people as if they were pieces of property for one's own personal benefit at the expense of the liberty of another is objectively wrong. This makes me a moral objectivist, not a relativist.