Athée,
Let me help you pick up those apples. I'd hate for them to go to waste.
Way to upend the apple cart my friend! How do you think people have misread the passages that usually get cited to supper this notion that the holy Spirit illuminates scripture for the believing reader?
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The extent to which the "misreading" of the Bible can take place will typically, in my estimation, be dependent upon individual Christians themselves. But if we want to break it down to a simpler metric of sorts, I think we'll find that people in general, whether Christian or not, are unaware of literary patterns and intentions when they read much of anything, not just the Bible.
Much of the time, the verses in question which are often misused, and over which debates between Christians ensue, are misunderstood because people harbor the notion that because they have the individual privilege to read the bible for themselves, that by corollary, they should also be able to assume the full legitimacy of their individual understanding, which they also think should be permitted to stand apart from interaction and accountability with other people (or other Christians, as in this case). That's one reason why Christians disagree, despite the illumination of the Holy Spirit.
A second reason is that Christians are sometimes guilty of bandying these notions about within the church, whether locally or at large, because they never question their understanding of Scripture, nor do they see how their overarching interpretive conclusions originated or became constructed. If they were to look at these interpretive conclusions, then many times they might realize that the prized idea, the main notion--such as the Guaranteed Illumination by the Holy Spirit--is really nothing more than an amalgamated misconstrual made from various verses. Underlying all of this is the additionally vague notion that some of the verses associated with the support of the main notion in some way support the main notion, when in fact, those verses don't, specifically.
Let's look at an example of a verse that often gets used to support the supposed universal Illumination of the Holy Spirit for all believers, John 14:26, "But the Advocate, the
Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you."
Now, on the face of it, it looks like this verse asserts the advocacy of the Holy Spirit. And that is because it does, on a basic level. But, here's the catch. We have to ask questions as to the full meaning of this verse because straight off, it isn't quite clear as to the nature of the verb and object discussed. Who is Jesus speaking to? His disciples. Which disciples? His immediate disciples. Okay, so far so good. But why would we automatically assume that the context applies also to us the readers? The verse itself doesn't say, "...and apply this to all believers everywhere at all times." And what does Jesus say the Holy Spirit will do? He will teach His (immediate) disciples "all things." What "all things"? Is this to mean all the things Jesus said? Or is this to apply to all the things in the Scriptures of the Old Testament? Or is it all the things that fall from the lips of leaders of the Church? Or is it all the things a person could want to know about spiritual reality from God's point of view, etc., etc.? It's not clear. Moreover, Jesus tells the immediate disciples that He will remind them of everything "I have said to you." Does this mean that the Holy Spirit will reestablish in the disciples' brains every single word ever spoken by Jesus during his earthly ministry, verbatim? Or does it mean that the disciples will be privy to recollecting the basic ideas that Jesus taught so they can live effective Christian lives? Does it mean they should be able to record on paper every word that ever left the lips of Jesus?
If we were to take John 14:26 in a simple, non-contextual fashion, it isn't clear how and to what extent even the immediate disciples of Jesus were to be enabled to recollect the teaching of Jesus, let alone non-immediate disciples living 2,000 years later. Yet, this verse gets man-handled as a promise beyond measure, and it is used by individual Christians to bolster their supposed understanding of the Illumination of the Holy Spirit.
Then, we take the general notions that we create and marry these to other verses, like those in chapters 1 and 2 of 1 Corinthians, where Paul states the general idea that God reveals hidden wisdom to His people, especially connoting a reason why some people don't accept certain spiritual truths, "...These things we also speak, not in words which man's wisdom teaches but which the Holy Spirit teaches..." Okay, hold up! Why would we assume that in this instance Paul is talking about an identical spiritually induced epistemic phenomenon parallel in function to that which Jesus implied in John 14:26? Well...it isn't parallel, although it may be related. The point is, the topics, inferences, implications, and connotations between just John 14:26 and 1 Corinthians are not exactly clear, but Christians often take these and run, asserting along the way that the meaning and application is clear, clear, clear, when it really isn't. And thus, we have Christians who run about too confident that they have clear notions as to the meaning implied regarding the manifestation of Holy Spirit Illumination and then they go on to disagree with each other, and at times almost choke each other over contentions about this, that and the other regarding what they think the Bible "really says."
More could be said, and other verses could be tapped...but I think I've lost my breath at this point.

The point being, we still need to do hermeneutical work, even if illuminated by the Holy Spirit.
Peace,
2PhiloVoid