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Why did Paul talk about tongue speaking only in 1 Corinthians?

Presbyterian Continuist

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You used to agree with me then, what happened? =)

Have you changed your mind now?
I agreed with you to the point where tongues can be a sign to unbelievers, which was fulfilled on the day of Pentecost, and that it was linked to the invasion of the Assyrians with their "stammering language". But that was all. It is not the main point of what Paul was teaching in 1 Corinthians 14. There are much more important points made in the chapter. So carrying on with tongues being a sign to unbelievers is majoring in a minor and making a bigger deal of it than what Paul made.
 
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Der Alte

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Paul did quite the source. It was the Isaiah reference that he made. You have the same access to Google that I have.
It is customary when one quotes a source, they, not the reader, cites the source.
 
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We have no biblical injunction to pray in tongues. You confuse self-aggrandizement with edification. Tongues ceased according to 1 Cor 13:8.
Common sense (not religious prejudice) shows us that Paul prayed in tongues when he was not present in a church meeting. Just because he didn't use the word "pray", doesn't mean that he didn't. In 1 Corinthians 14:2 he says that when a person speaks in tongues he is speaking to God. What is that if it wasn't prayer? Prayer is speaking to God, obviously.

The reference in 1 Corinthians 13:8 doesn't refer to the gift of tongues. He is talking about the general use of world languages that originated from the tower of Babel. I explained this in a previous post on this thread. It is a fact that commentaries before the late 19th Century referred to "the perfect" as the environment after the Church Age is over and Christian believers have been resurrected to glory. It was only as a result of the Pentecostal revival of the late 19th, early 20th Century that commentaries suddenly appeared with the theory that prophecy and tongues ceased when then canon of Scripture was established. Before then, prophecy and tongues were not known in the churches, nor had those gifts of the Spirit were an issue in the churches that would have given rise to commentators deciding whether these gifts had ceased or not. Because the existence of prophecy and tongues was contrary to their theology, the commentators decided to line 1 Corinthians 13:8 with their cessationist theology and give their reason that these gifts were replaced by the canon of Scripture that was decided in the 2nd Century. This goes right against reports from the Church fathers right up to the 4th Century that tongues and prophecy was still evident in the churches.
 
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Der Alte

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My question was about this comment. "the stammering style of the Assyrian language which was totally different to ancient Hebrew."
A pretty minor point not worth pursuing. I think the source I quoted is sufficient.
 
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Guojing

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I agreed with you to the point where tongues can be a sign to unbelievers, which was fulfilled on the day of Pentecost, and that it was linked to the invasion of the Assyrians with their "stammering language". But that was all.

Are you saying now, tongues are to be a sign for all unbelievers, not just unbelieving Jews?
 
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Der Alte

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A pretty minor point not worth pursuing. I think the source I quoted is sufficient.
You made a statement which is not supported by any credible, verifiable, evidence of any kind so I must conclude that it is patently false.
 
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Receivedgrace

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So we are to believe that your personal experience trumps the word of God? You cannot believe the word of God and argue that tongues continue. 1Cor 13:9-10 set forth the context of the perfect.
The great deception is sealing many souls to eternal condemnation especially within that which calls itself church but is not.
 
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Receivedgrace

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Now you want to use a convenient version of history to evade the truth of the bible? Contextually it is quite clear that the OT is the knowing in part and that we see clearly now that the NT reveals that which was hidden in the OT. The Pharisees would not see the truth and Jesus rebuked them for their willful ignorance.
 
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Strong in Him

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So we are to believe that your personal experience trumps the word of God?
No - but if God IS doing something today which our understanding of Scripture says should not happen, then it is our understanding of Scripture which is wrong. Or are you saying God contradicts himself?
Scripture does not say that tongues has ceased, today in 2023.
You cannot believe the word of God and argue that tongues continue. 1Cor 13:9-10 set forth the context of the perfect.
I believe the word of God; I do not believe tongues has yet ceased because I've heard that gift being used.
The great deception is sealing many souls to eternal condemnation especially within that which calls itself church but is not.
Tongues has nothing to do with salvation. Speak in tongues daily, or deny that they are around today - doesn't mean that a person is not saved and does not have eternal life.
 
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Are you saying now, tongues are to be a sign for all unbelievers, not just unbelieving Jews?
Seeing that Paul was addressing his comments to a Gentile Christian church, then why would he limit the sign for Jewish unbelievers when there would hardly be Jewish Christians in that church? Wouldn't limiting the sign to Jewish unbelievers be meaningless to Gentile Corinthian Christians?
 
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You made a statement which is not supported by any credible, verifiable, evidence of any kind so I must conclude that it is patently false.
Whatever...
 
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I have no idea what you are talking about.
 
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Just as a matter of interest, if, in 1 Corinthians 13:8, Paul wasn't referring to the gift of tongues at all, but to our diverse world languages, such as English, French. Italian, Chinese, Spanish, etc., which are still present in the word today, then the doctrine that the gift of tongues has ceased becomes meaningless. Common sense tells me that it seems puzzling that Paul would say that "tongues will cease", and then straight afterward (original Corinthians had no chapter divisions) he would go into detail how the gift of tongues should be administered in the church, and formed into inspired Scripture for all Christians throughout the Church Age.

I have come to believe that Paul was not referring to the gift of tongues at all in 1 Corinthians 13:8. He was talking about languages in general would cease and in glory we would all be speaking in the same language. I also believe that Paul, in speaking about prophecy, was referring to inspired preaching and teaching where the Holy Spirit spoke through it, and not the practice of people getting up and saying "thus says the Lord" and giving, as God, directions to the group. The pastor, speaking his message on a Sunday morning can be just as prophetic when the Holy Spirit speaks through it. This has happened to me on a number occasions when I was certain that the preacher was reading my mail. I believe that was the prophecy that Paul was talking about. In the early church where the Holy Spirit was much more active, He was able to speak through the majority of preaching and teaching which encouraged, comforted, exhorted, and edified the listeners, and caused unbelievers to fall on their faces and acknowledge that God was truly amount them.

Because Paul does not define exactly what prophecy is, we have to default to the simplest, most common sense definition - that it is preaching, teaching, and sharing encouraging revelation in order to edify the congregation.
 
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Paul doesn't define what "the perfect" actually is, so it is open to conjecture. So to define "the perfect" as the complete canon of Scripture could very well be putting words into Paul's mouth that were not there. So we have no evidence to prove that "the perfect" being the complete canon of Scripture is actually the word of God, and quite possibly could be Cessationist theory trumping God's Word.
The great deception is sealing many souls to eternal condemnation especially within that which calls itself church but is not.
Putting words into Paul's mouth that are not there is a deception and is twisting God's Word to make it mean something that Paul never defined in the first place. So I wonder who is actually being deceived?
 
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Matthew 10:14
The context for Matthew 10:14 is when Jesus sent out the 12 disciples to go into the towns and villages to announce the good news of the kingdom of God. The actual verse therefore refers to what the disciples should do if the people of a certain town refused to hear the good news. It has nothing to do with the discussion on this thread, and it certainly has nothing to do with me not deciding to enter into a discussion about something which is so minor it is not worth discussing. So to quote a Scripture verse like this out of context to make it mean something else, is misusing God's word.
 
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Guojing

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So to confirm, with the words that I have bolded above, are you answering my question with a yes?

Are you saying now, tongues are to be a sign for all unbelievers, not just unbelieving Jews?
 
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