Why Christians Should Embrace Partial Preterism

[claninja]

When does Satan‘s little season occur?

at Christ's ascension

revelation 12:12 Therefore, rejoice, O heavens and you who dwell in them! But woe to you, O earth and sea, for the devil has come down to you in great wrath, because he knows that his time is short!”

 

[claninja]

The 1000 years of Revelation 20 represents David to Christ ???

No, it only draws from it as there was a literal 1,000 years from David to Christ.

The "1,000 years" = the restoration of the Davidic monarchy through Christ's ministry, death, resurrection, ascension, and sending of the Spirit.

by the parabolic "1,000" equaling the restoration of the David monarchy, we then have:

1.) Satan bound and cast out leading to a "little season" as a result of the restoration of the Davidic monarchy

2.) the disciples judging Israel by the Spirit as a result of the restoration of the David monarchy

3.) God's people partaking in the 1st resurrection and being born again to be a royal priesthood as a result of the restoration of the Davidic monarchy.

All of these events can be found throughout the gospels and epistles, in non symbolic language, as occurring in the 1st century, thus showing us the interpretation of the "1,000 years".

Just so that you can slot Satan's little season into the events of AD 70

I don't believe the parabolic "1,000 years" has anything to do with 70ad. I believe it has to do with the restoration of the Davidic monarchy through Christ's ministry, death, resurrection, ascension, and sending of the Spirit, which resulted in:

1.) Satan bound and cast out leading to a "little season" as a result of the restoration of the Davidic monarchy

2.) the disciples judging Israel by the Spirit as a result of the restoration of the David monarchy

3.) God's people partaking in the 1st resurrection and being born again to be a royal priesthood as a result of the restoration of the Davidic monarchy.

Im sorry Claninja. I find that a novel and convoluted argument. 'Never heard it before.

I'm sorry if I wasn't clear, but it appears you misunderstood me then. I apologize CG.

Scripure is clear that when satan is cast out of heaven at Christ's ascension, his time is short

Therefore, rejoice, O heavens and you who dwell in them! But woe to you, O earth and sea, for the devil has come down to you in great wrath, because he knows that his time is short!”

 

[Christian Gedge]

So God will revive every one:

1. Whose Ancestry DNA test shows Jewishness;
or
2. Who adopts Babylonian Talmudism;
or
3. Who includes Jewish kosher in their diet.

So these are three additional alternative paths to God?

Hey jg, I never said that. I said a 'revival.' A widespread one hopefully. But everyone that wears a kippah? I never said that.

 

[DavidPT]

If I believe the sky is green and you believe it is blue, will you just telling me the sky is blue change my mind? No. But what if you found common ground with me. What if we agreed that the ocean looked blue and then you pointed to the sky and asked if they were the same color? that would be a better argument than just saying the sky is blue and leaving it at that.

We don't agree on the interpretation of revelation 20. So can you point to other scripture that mentions that satan has more than 1 little season? Especially, any non symbolic scripture from the gospels and epistles?



Revelation 1:3 and threw him into the pit, and shut it and sealed it over him, so that he might not deceive the nations any longer, until the thousand years were ended (teleo 5055). After that he must be released for a little while.

Cognate: 5055 teléō (from 5056 /télos, "consummation, completion") – properly, to complete (consummate), i.e. finish (qualitatively) the necessary process – with the results "rolling-over" to the next level (phase) of consummation. See 5056 (telos).

I believe the 1,000 = the restoration of the Davidic monarchy through Christ. Thus "when the 1,000 years are ended" = its fulfillment/completion. Through Christ’s ministry, death, resurrection, ascension to heaven, and sending of the spirit, satan was cast bound and cast out.

It is upon this work that the gospel went to the nations. I believe the gospel to be stronger than satan's deceiving.



How so, and what non symbolic language from the epistles and gospels can you use to back up your interpretation of 2 little seasons?

I don't need to prove with other Scripture that satan has two little seasons if the Scriptures below are already proving that.

My main argument is as follows below. It doesn't really matter when one thinks the thousand years are, or whether they are even literal or not. None of that affects my argument one way or the other, at least not as far as I can tell.

Revelation 13:5 And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue forty and two months.

There is only one 42 month period. Whether a literal 42 months or not, that doesn't matter. This 42 months mentioned here obviously can't take place during the thousand years when satan is in the pit. Therefore it has to be when satan is not bound. Scripture only shows two times when he is not bound---1) before the thousand years---2) after the thousand years during his little season.

Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.


What I have underlined above obviously means during the time of Revelation 13:5, that being when these were martyred. And since they are already martyred during the time of Revelation 13:5 before satan is ever loosed after the thousand years, this tells us Revelation 13:5 has zero to do with satan's little season after the thousand years.

Revelation 12:12 Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.

Revelation 12:17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.

What I have underlined in verse 17 shows that Revelation 13:5 happens during what I have underlined in verse 12. But since Revelation 20:4 shows that Revelation 13:5 can't happen during satan's little season after the thousand years, and that Revelation 12:17 shows that satan's short time in Revelation 12:12 includes Revelation 13:5, there is no way then without contradicting the texts involved, that satan's short time in Revelation 12:12 is meaning his little season after the thousand years in Revelation 20.

Revelation 20:4 shows that Revelation 13:5 is meaning before the thousand years. Revelation 13:5 can't be meaning before the thousand years and also after the thousand years. It can only be one or the other. And like I already indicated, Revelation 20:4 shows that Revelation 13:5 is meaning before the thousand years.

 

[Christian Gedge]

No, it only draws from it as there was a literal 1,000 years from David to Christ.

The "1,000 years" = the restoration of the Davidic monarchy through Christ's ministry, death, resurrection, ascension, and sending of the Spirit.

by the parabolic "1,000" equaling the restoration of the David monarchy, we then have:

1.) Satan bound and cast out leading to a "little season" as a result of the restoration of the Davidic monarchy

2.) the disciples judging Israel by the Spirit as a result of the restoration of the David monarchy

3.) God's people partaking in the 1st resurrection and being born again to be a royal priesthood as a result of the restoration of the Davidic monarchy.

All of these events can be found throughout the gospels and epistles, in non symbolic language, as occurring in the 1st century, thus showing us the interpretation of the "1,000 years".



I don't believe the parabolic "1,000 years" has anything to do with 70ad. I believe it has to do with the restoration of the Davidic monarchy through Christ's ministry, death, resurrection, ascension, and sending of the Spirit, which resulted in:

1.) Satan bound and cast out leading to a "little season" as a result of the restoration of the Davidic monarchy

2.) the disciples judging Israel by the Spirit as a result of the restoration of the David monarchy

3.) God's people partaking in the 1st resurrection and being born again to be a royal priesthood as a result of the restoration of the Davidic monarchy.



I'm sorry if I wasn't clear, but it appears you misunderstood me then. I apologize CG.

Scripure is clear that when satan is cast out of heaven at Christ's ascension, his time is short

Therefore, rejoice, O heavens and you who dwell in them! But woe to you, O earth and sea, for the devil has come down to you in great wrath, because he knows that his time is short!”

OK, I misunderstood your 'parabolic' meaning. I understand now but still don't agree. 'Far to convoluted for my simple brain, so we'll just have to beg to differ.

 

[jgr]

Hey jg, I never said that. I said a 'revival.' A widespread one hopefully. But everyone that wears a kippah? I never said that.

Back to the original question then, Chris. You are saying that Jews will be revived. How does God identify who is a Jew that He will revive? What identification criteria in the list, other than #4, does He use?

Or is not #4 His only criterion?

 

[FreeinChrist]

ADVISOR HAT


Folks, there are several problems in this thread.

One particular problem is the use of term amillennialism. Amillennialism means no millennial period set between two specific events in history matching 1000 years. In the amillennial view, the 1000 years is symbolic and starts at the Ascension of Christ and ends with the physical return of Christ at the Second coming. It cannot start in the OT period and end at His Ascension. If that is not your view, then it is not Amillennialism.

Another problem is that any suggestion that the Second Coming is an ongoing event since the Ascension of Christ is full preterism and cannot be promoted in this forum. It can be discussed on Controversial Christian theology.

A third issue is flaming. It is not okay to insult other members or other views. If you have a concern about a post, report it.

IF it becomes a thread about full preterism, it will be moved or closed.



​

 

[DavidPT]

at Christ's ascension

revelation 12:12 Therefore, rejoice, O heavens and you who dwell in them! But woe to you, O earth and sea, for the devil has come down to you in great wrath, because he knows that his time is short!”

In the event sovereigngrace perhaps agrees with you there, I don't know if he does or not, but if he did where does that leave room for his 2000 year period he claims is meaning the thousand years in Revelation 20?

Speaking for myself, if I were an Amil, I would likely initially be assuming Revelation 12:12 is the most likely place for the beginning of satan's little season after the thousand years. So I can see the logic in assuming that. But since I typically like to think things through before making something my final conclusion, what I would then be asking myself, where does the thousand years fit in that case?

Before Revelation 12:12 is fulfilled satan still has access to heaven in some sense or another. Therefore his binding wouldn't fit there. This is yet another reason I'm not Amil, because there is zero place for the thousand years to fit if Revelation 12:12 were to be meaning his little season after the thousand years. And it for sure wouldn't make sense that---because he knoweth that he hath but a short time(Revelation 12:12)---is meaning the thousand years. If that were true, what would be meaning the little season then?

Why then continue pounding round pegs into square holes in order to try and get Amil to fit somehow? That position is never going to fit with some of the texts that are involved, such as Revelation 12, Revelation 13, and Revelation 20:4, to name a few.

 

[Christian Gedge]

Before Revelation 12:12 is fulfilled satan still has access to heaven in some sense or another. Therefore his binding wouldn't fit there. This is yet another reason I'm not Amil, because there is zero place for the thousand years to fit if Revelation 12:12 were to be meaning his little season after the thousand years. And it for sure wouldn't make sense that---because he knoweth that he hath but a short time(Revelation 12:12)---is meaning the thousand years. If that were true, what would be meaning the little season then?

Fair point. Yes, Rev 12:12 equates with Rev 20:3, so how does an Amil place the little season? I am an Amil of the 'historicist' variety, so I'll answer, as SG probably will too.

Amil Historicism depicts a church age where Christ and the Church is ruling and reigning together in a hostile world "until the 'Ancient of Days' comes and pronounces judgement in favor of the saints of the most high." (Daniel 7:22) This is symbolised as a 1000 years in the book of Revelation.

Throughout that era Satan would launch attacks against God's kingdom, because he knew his time was short. Some would be localised; some would be of greater or lesser intensity. Then, toward the end of that time he would be loosed to unleash his greatest attack ever. (Rev. 20:3) That is when the final battle would take place. Then the end will come.

 

[DavidPT]

Fair point. Yes, Rev 12:12 equates with Rev 20:3, so how does an Amil place the little season? I am an Amil of the 'historicist' variety, so I'll answer, as SG probably will too.

Amil Historicism depicts a church age where Christ and the Church is ruling and reigning together in a hostile world "until the 'Ancient of Days' comes and pronounces judgement in favor of the saints of the most high." (Daniel 6:22) This is symbolised as a 1000 years in the book of Revelation.

Throughout that era Satan would launch attacks against God's kingdom, because he knew his time was short. Some would be localised; some would be of greater or lesser intensity. Then, toward the end of that time he would be loosed to unleash his greatest attack ever. (Rev. 20:3) That is when the final battle would take place. Then the end will come.

I think you meant to say Daniel 7:22 rather than Daniel 6:22.

Daniel 7:21 I beheld, and the same horn made war with the saints, and prevailed against them;
22 Until the Ancient of days came, and judgment was given to the saints of the most High; and the time came that the saints possessed the kingdom.

Clearly verse 22 is meaning while the same horn made war with the saints, and prevailed against them, and that this coming puts a stop to that altogether. Clearly Daniel 7:21 is meaning---and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ(Revelation 12:17)---which in turn is meaning---and power was given unto him to continue forty and two months(Revelation 13:5)---And it was given unto him to make war with the saints, and to overcome them(Revelation 13:7).

And what happens once Revelation 13:5 is fulfilled? The 2nd coming of Christ, IOW, Daniel 7:22. How can Daniel 7:22 not be the 2nd coming of Christ if that coming puts an end to the little horn's prevailing against them, and so does the 2nd coming of Christ put an end to the beast prevailing against the saints during the 42 months? And the fact that this little horn in Daniel 7 is this same beast in Revelation 13?

I'm not grasping how you make a thousand year period(yes I realize you are not meaning a literal thousand years, but that is beside the point) fit here beginning at Revelation 12:12? After he is cast unto the earth though, satan is not being depicted as one who is bound in a pit. He is depicted as one free to roam about, thus on the loose, and not all tied up instead. The text indicates he has great wrath. Why would he have great wrath while bound in the pit?

How could he go about persecuting the woman which brought forth the manchild, one of the first things he sets out to do once he sees he has been cast unto the earth, if he is supposed to be bound in the pit at the time? I still see a whole lot of pounding round pegs into square holes going on here, in order to try and get Amil to somehow fit the texts involved.

 

[Christian Gedge]

Thanks for showing my typo. Fixed now.

Amils tend to be more figurative than premils. If you look at my 'Symbols in Revelation' thread you might get into the Amil brain a bit better.

 

[DavidPT]

Thanks for showing my typo. Fixed now.

Amils tend to be more figurative than premils. If you look at my 'Symbols in Revelation' thread you might get into the Amil brain a bit better.

I don't see that matters one way or another, in respect to Amil being more figurative about things. That still doesn't change the fact that the situation is supposed to be matching the imagery.

and a great chain in his hand. And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years, And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled

That's the imagery. The imagery does not match any of the following in Revelation 12.

Revelation 12:12 Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.
13 And when the dragon saw that he was cast unto the earth, he persecuted the woman which brought forth the man child.


Revelation 20:1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.

What does this verse tell us? The fact this angel has to come down from heaven in order to cast satan into the pit, that has to mean satan is where the angel comes down to. The only logical place the angel can be coming down to is the earth. This also tells us, when satan is initially bound, it is meaning a time after Revelation 12:12 has been fulfilled. We can know this for a fact, the fact, before satan is cast unto the earth he still has access to heaven. Therefore his binding has to mean after he is cast to the earth, which also agrees with Revelation 20:1 like I already pointed out.

Yet nothing in Revelation 12 from verse 12 to verse 17 match any of the imagery seen in Revelation 20:1-3. The only logical place to insert the thousand years in Revelation 12 would be after this part has been fulfilled-----and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ(Revelation 12:17). That is Premil not Amil.

 

[solid_core]

If Jesus already come (as preterism says), should we take the Lord's supper?

"For whenever you eat this bread and drink this cup, you proclaim the Lord's death until he comes."
1Cor 4:5

If we take it, we are saying He did not come, no?

 

[Andrewn]

Fair point. Yes, Rev 12:12 equates with Rev 20:3, so how does an Amil place the little season? I am an Amil of the 'historicist' variety, so I'll answer, as SG probably will too.

This is the idealist view; jar presents the historicist view.

 

[Andrewn]

If Jesus already come (as preterism says), should we take the Lord's supper? "For whenever you eat this bread and drink this cup, you proclaim the Lord's death until he comes." 1Cor 4:5 If we take it, we are saying He did not come, no?

You make a valid point but plz be careful with your statements: I assume you mean to say "If Jesus already returned (as full preterism says)." Partial preterism is very very different from full preterism.

 

[claninja]

I don't need to prove with other Scripture that satan has two little seasons if the Scriptures below are already proving that.

Of course you don't "need" to, but then I'm not sure why you want to discuss any of this then. We have different views on a highly symbolic book, so we should look to outside scripture in order to find common ground. Can you post non symbolic scripture from outside of revelation that shows that Satan has 2 little seasons, so that we can find common ground?

My main argument is as follows below. It doesn't really matter when one thinks the thousand years are, or whether they are even literal or not. None of that affects my argument one way or the other, at least not as far as I can tell.

Revelation 13:5 And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue forty and two months.

There is only one 42 month period. Whether a literal 42 months or not, that doesn't matter. This 42 months mentioned here obviously can't take place during the thousand years when satan is in the pit. Therefore it has to be when satan is not bound. Scripture only shows two times when he is not bound---1) before the thousand years---2) after the thousand years during his little season.

Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.


What I have underlined above obviously means during the time of Revelation 13:5, that being when these were martyred. And since they are already martyred during the time of Revelation 13:5 before satan is ever loosed after the thousand years, this tells us Revelation 13:5 has zero to do with satan's little season after the thousand years.

Revelation 12:12 Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.

Revelation 12:17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.

What I have underlined in verse 17 shows that Revelation 13:5 happens during what I have underlined in verse 12. But since Revelation 20:4 shows that Revelation 13:5 can't happen during satan's little season after the thousand years, and that Revelation 12:17 shows that satan's short time in Revelation 12:12 includes Revelation 13:5, there is no way then without contradicting the texts involved, that satan's short time in Revelation 12:12 is meaning his little season after the thousand years in Revelation 20.

Revelation 20:4 shows that Revelation 13:5 is meaning before the thousand years. Revelation 13:5 can't be meaning before the thousand years and also after the thousand years. It can only be one or the other. And like I already indicated, Revelation 20:4 shows that Revelation 13:5 is meaning before the thousand years.

The problems that you are promoting are under the assumption that I am Amil and/or take things in a literal fashion. 1.) while I agree with a lot of Amil teachings, I am not amil when it comes to the "1,000" year. 2.) I do not take revelation in a literal manner.

I believe the "1,000" years is parabolic and refers to the restoration of the Davidic monarchy through Christ's ministry, death, resurrection, ascension, and sending of the Spirit.

I can support the belief that the 1,000 years = the restoration of the davidic monarchy WITH OUTSIDE, NON APOCALYPTIC SCRIPTURE, as it is through Christ's ministry, death, resurrection, ascension, and sending of the spirit that the events of the "millennium" are fulfilled:

1.) Satan was bound and cast out (mark 3:27, John 12:31)

2.) the disciples were given authority to judge during the regeneration of the Spirit (Matthew 19:28, Titus 3:5)

3.) those in Christ were raised from being dead in their trespasses to become a kingdom of priests (ephesians 2:5, 1 peter 2:9)


As satan and the beast have similar descriptions (7 heads and 10 horns), I believe the beast to be the governments of man influenced by the authority given to Satan. As the beast is described as a lion, bear, leopard, and beast, I believe these point back to the 4 kingdom of Daniel 7 (babylon, persian, greece, rome), of which Satan was given authority over.

As we can see, the governments of man (the beast) with the kings of the earth and rulers, during the time of Rome, gathered against Jesus to destroy Him.

Acts 4:25-27 who through the mouth of our father David, your servant,d said by the Holy Spirit,
“‘Why did the Gentiles rage, and the peoples plot in vain? The kings of the earth set themselves,
and the rulers were gathered together, against the Lord and against his Anointed’e—for truly in this city there were gathered together against your holy servant Jesus, whom you anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel,


Reading revelation in a literal and linear fashion without the use of the gospels and epistles will result in contradictions for all positions who rely heavily on revelation and its apocalyptic language for their theological framework.

 

[claninja]

OK, I misunderstood your 'parabolic' meaning. I understand now but still don't agree. 'Far to convoluted for my simple brain, so we'll just have to beg to differ.

Which part do you disagree with specifically CG?

Is it the part about satan being bound and cast out by the work of Christ?
Is it the apostles judging Israel by the Spirit as a result of the work of Christ?
Is it the born again believes becoming of kingdom of priests as a result of the work of Christ?

If you don't disagree with any of these, then I'm not sure what you disagree about then or what is so convoluted about it?

 

[claninja]

In the event sovereigngrace perhaps agrees with you there, I don't know if he does or not, but if he did where does that leave room for his 2000 year period he claims is meaning the thousand years in Revelation 20?

SG believes the words like near or soon, mean far away or for a distant time in regards to the 2nd coming, so I don't think SG would have an issue with equating the "little season" to mean a couple thousand years.

Before Revelation 12:12 is fulfilled satan still has access to heaven in some sense or another. Therefore his binding wouldn't fit there. This is yet another reason I'm not Amil, because there is zero place for the thousand years to fit if Revelation 12:12 were to be meaning his little season after the thousand years.

Satan was bound through the work of Christ (Mark 3:27, 1 John 3:8)

The 1,000 cannot fit, in your opinion, as you continue to take it as a linear timeline. However, if the 1,000 years simply points to the restoration of the Davidic monarchy and NOT linear time, then there is no issue.

Why then continue pounding round pegs into square holes in order to try and get Amil to fit somehow? That position is never going to fit with some of the texts that are involved, such as Revelation 12, Revelation 13, and Revelation 20:4, to name a few.

As someone who doesn't hold to the Amil position on the "millennium", I agree. It also seems that any position, not just Amils, that take the "1,000" years as either literal and/or linear are pounding round pegs into square holes.

 

[DavidPT]

I can support the belief that the 1,000 years = the restoration of the davidic monarchy WITH OUTSIDE, NON APOCALYPTIC SCRIPTURE, as it is through Christ's ministry, death, resurrection, ascension, and sending of the spirit that the events of the "millennium" are fulfilled:

1.) Satan was bound and cast out (mark 3:27, John 12:31)

As to Mark 3:27, since it's not a good idea to use lone verses to establish doctrine, let's look at that verse in context.


Mark 3:13 And he goeth up into a mountain, and calleth unto him whom he would: and they came unto him.
14 And he ordained twelve, that they should be with him, and that he might send them forth to preach,
15 And to have power to heal sicknesses, and to cast out devils:
16 And Simon he surnamed Peter;
17 And James the son of Zebedee, and John the brother of James; and he surnamed them Boanerges, which is,The sons of thunder:
18 And Andrew, and Philip, and Bartholomew, and Matthew, and Thomas, and James the son of Alphaeus, and Thaddaeus, and Simon the Canaanite,
19 And Judas Iscariot, which also betrayed him: and they went into an house.
20 And the multitude cometh together again, so that they could not so much as eat bread.
21 And when his friends heard of it, they went out to lay hold on him: for they said, He is beside himself.
22 And the scribes which came down from Jerusalem said, He hath Beelzebub, and by the prince of the devils casteth he out devils.
23 And he called them unto him, and said unto them in parables, How can Satan cast out Satan?
24 And if a kingdom be divided against itself, that kingdom cannot stand.
25 And if a house be divided against itself, that house cannot stand.
26 And if Satan rise up against himself, and be divided, he cannot stand, but hath an end.
27 No man can enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he will first bind the strong man; and then he will spoil his house.
28 Verily I say unto you, All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men, and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme:
29 But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation:
30 Because they said, He hath an unclean spirit.


Can you show why and how Revelation 20:1-3 fits any of that? The fact you used Mark 3:27 specifically to make your point, what does that verse mean when this part happens---and after that he must be loosed a little season(Revelation 20:3)?


No man can enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he will first bind the strong man; and then he will spoil his house---and after that he must be loosed a little season

I'm not seeing it. Clearly when he is loosed he is not still bound. I don't see the alleged connection to Revelation 20:1-3 with that of Mark 3:13-30 . Where is it if you still insist it's there? Unless you can show that the context involving Mark 3:13-30 supports your theory about this connection to Revelation 20:1-3, I don't see you having an argument at all.

 

[DavidPT]

The 1,000 cannot fit, in your opinion, as you continue to take it as a linear timeline. However, if the 1,000 years simply points to the restoration of the Davidic monarchy and NOT linear time, then there is no issue.

It seems that has been brought up several times in this thread, and yet each time it is brought up I still do not even remotely comprehend what this even means.

Revelation 20:2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.


Revelation 20:7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,


Clearly this thousand years has a starting point and an ending point. Clearly the starting point is when satan is initially cast into the bottomless pit, therefore being bound in it. Clearly the finishing point of this thousand years is when satan is loosed out of his prison.

This is not the only mention of this thousand years though.

Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

Obviously there is initially one group, that being the dead as a whole. Verse 4 says of this group of the dead---and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years. Verse 6 says of this group of the dead---Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection---and shall reign with him a thousand years.

Verse 5 says of this group of the dead---But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished.

What should we conclude from all of this then? That part of this group of the dead already lived again before the remaining part of it did as well. No one from the rest of the dead in verse 5 can possibly be of the blessed and holy that hath part in the first resurrection, otherwise they, too, would have lived again when those in the first resurrection did. And likewise, no one of the first resurrection can also be of the rest of the dead who live not again until the thousand years are finished, the fact they already lived again via the first resurrection, and that one doesn't need to live again twice, but only once.

Everything I just submitted here, regardless that you might disagree with my take on some or all of these things, none of it appears to even remotely be about anything you allege it to be about in what I quoted from your post above.