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Why can't the Law justify us?

k4c

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Romans 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight...

The reason for this is because justification has to do with a past guilt. The Law was not designed to justufy anyone, for example.

The posted speed limit is 25mph but I get a ticket for driving 55mph in the 25 zone. Will the judge find me not guilty if I tell him I will start obeying the speed limit now? No he won't? Way is that? Because obeying the Law will not justify anyone who is guilty. The Law only points out the fact that I'm guilty.

Well, the fine is $600.00, which I don't have. The judge is about to order me to a 30 day stay at his 5 star resort he calls, the Big House. But just in the nick of time a friend pays my fine and I'm free to go. In my feedom, is the speed limit sign removed? No.

If I, once again, drive 55mph in the posted 25 zone will I not get another ticket and stand before the judge again?

Just because God's grace, through Jesus, has paid my ticket does not allow me to now break the Law, which includes the fourth commandment Law.

Romans 6:15 What then? Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace? Certainly not!

Shall I speed because by grace my ticket was paid? Certainly not.
 

juneil

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Romans 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight...

The reason for this is because justification has to do with a past guilt. The Law was not designed to justufy anyone, for example.

The posted speed limit is 25mph but I get a ticket for driving 55mph in the 25 zone. Will the judge find me not guilty if I tell him I will start obeying the speed limit now? No he won't? Way is that? Because obeying the Law will not justify anyone who is guilty. The Law only points out the fact that I'm guilty.

Well, the fine is $600.00, which I don't have. The judge is about to order me to a 30 day stay at his 5 star resort he calls, the Big House. But just in the nick of time a friend pays my fine and I'm free to go. In my feedom, is the speed limit sign removed? No.

If I, once again, drive 55mph in the posted 25 zone will I not get another ticket and stand before the judge again?

Just because God's grace, through Jesus, has paid my ticket does not allow me to now break the Law, which includes the fourth commandment Law.

Romans 6:15 What then? Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace? Certainly not!

Shall I speed because by grace my ticket was paid? Certainly not.
Amen.

The laws never justifies us but it shows our love to God.
 
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RND

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Romans 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight...

The reason for this is because justification has to do with a past guilt. The Law was not designed to justufy anyone, for example.

The posted speed limit is 25mph but I get a ticket for driving 55mph in the 25 zone. Will the judge find me not guilty if I tell him I will start obeying the speed limit now? No he won't? Way is that? Because obeying the Law will not justify anyone who is guilty. The Law only points out the fact that I'm guilty.

Well, the fine is $600.00, which I don't have. The judge is about to order me to a 30 day stay at his 5 star resort he calls, the Big House. But just in the nick of time a friend pays my fine and I'm free to go. In my feedom, is the speed limit sign removed? No.

If I, once again, drive 55mph in the posted 25 zone will I not get another ticket and stand before the judge again?

Just because God's grace, through Jesus, has paid my ticket does not allow me to now break the Law, which includes the fourth commandment Law.

Romans 6:15 What then? Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace? Certainly not!

Shall I speed because by grace my ticket was paid? Certainly not.

It's a great story you told! Great points to ponder. Isn't it great that in our situation that the "judge" has already paid the cost of the fine for us!

2 Ti 4:8
Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, shall give me at that day: and not to me only, but unto all them also that love his appearing.

Good post k4c!
 
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djconklin

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Romans 7:7 What shall we say then? [Is] the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
To me what makes that verse interesting is that Paul had been taught for decades about God, law, etc.. and yet never realized that with that commandment there was nothing you could do to break it!
 
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Cribstyl

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That's an excellent question. I often wonder how those that say "we're not under the law, we're under grace" honestly and sincerely answer it.
Answering questions used to be a fun thing arround here.
(I know this is a 2008 thread but let's get a good look at truth vs error.)
The question is: If there is no law how are the wicked judged?

I feel that the question is intentially misleading by saying "if there is no law".
The scriptures is what sez "we're not under the law" not that "there is no law". So the question has errors.

Q: Why does scripture say "we're not under the law?
A: The scriptures says we're not under the law because of the blood of the New Covenant redeems, and that the law is powerless to condemn sins of those who are forgiven by the blood of Jesus. Rom 6:15
...................................

The elephant is the room, is that sin is what will be judged, not law breaking.
How can someone be judge by a law that they never knew?
The error is to establish that sin is only defined by the law.
Paul taught that sin was in the world before the law.



The honest question would be: "how are the wicked judged?"

Justification is a juditial process whereby someone is judged and redeemed. (True or False?)

The text explains; not one person will be justified by the law, because the law only gives knowledge of the sin people commit. (letter of condemnation)
The whole text says.....Rom 3:20Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law [is] the knowledge of sin.

This text in context (below) is explaining that the law will not be the standard of righteousness in God's judgment according to prophecy. (Jer 31:31-34)
Rom 3:21But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

This contradict the teaching that only the cerominial laws were nailed to the cross. The fact is the transgression Gentiles are guilty of are primarily moral sins.


The question remains...What will be the standard of God's judgment?

The answer is......The wicked will be judged by faith.


Rom 3:28Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
 
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Cribstyl

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Answering questions used to be a fun thing arround here.
(I know this is a 2008 thread but let's get a good look at truth vs error.)
The question is: If there is no law how are the wicked judged?

I feel that the question is intentially misleading by saying "if there is no law".
The scriptures is what sez "we're not under the law" not that "there is no law". So the question has errors.

Q: Why does scripture say "we're not under the law?
A: The scriptures says we're not under the law because of the blood of the New Covenant redeems, and that the law is powerless to condemn sins of those who are forgiven by the blood of Jesus. Rom 6:15
...................................

The elephant is the room, is that sin is what will be judged, not law breaking.
How can someone be judge by a law that they never knew?
The error is to establish that sin is only defined by the law.
Paul taught that sin was in the world before the law.



The honest question would be: "how are the wicked judged?"

Justification is a juditial process whereby someone is judged and redeemed. (True or False?)

The text explains; not one person will be justified by the law, because the law only gives knowledge of the sin people commit. (letter of condemnation)
The whole text says.....Rom 3:20Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law [is] the knowledge of sin.

This text in context (below) is explaining that the law will not be the standard of righteousness in God's judgment according to prophecy. (Jer 31:31-34)
Rom 3:21But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

This contradict the teaching that only the cerominial laws were nailed to the cross. The fact is the transgression Gentiles are guilty of are primarily moral sins.


The question remains...What will be the standard of God's judgment?

The answer is......The wicked will be judged by faith.


Rom 3:28Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
:cool:
 
Upvote 0