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But does this mean we should stop celebrating Easter
This is an example of synecdoche, where the whole implies the part or the part implies the whole. In this case three days and three nights are three "whole" days which imply the "part" of Friday, "all" of Saturday, and "part" of Sunday. There are many examples of synecdoche throughout Scripture.The reasons I read Jesus probably did not die on a Friday are:
1. He told his disciples, "Like Jonah was in the belly of a big fish for three days and three nights, I will be in the belly of the earth for three days and three nights." Friday afternoon to Sunday morning is 2 nights, so it is mathematically and scientifically impossible for Jesus to die on a Friday and rise on a Sunday if he was buried that long.
For the Jews, the day begins at sunset. Sunday began at sunset after the Sabbath, so about 10 hours of Sunday have passed before the women came to the tomb at dawn.2. The two women named Mary came to visit Jesus before dawn on Sunday morning. He was gone then. So we can't count Sunday as the third day after Friday afternoon because Jesus actually rose on Saturday night - his second night in the belly of the earth.
The Passover was called a "Holy Convocation" and not a "Sabbath". On the Sabbath, no work could be done whereas on the Passover they were allowed to prepare food. The fact that the day before was called the preparation means the next day was a weekly Sabbath, as they had to prepare food ahead of the weekly Sabbath. So there were not two Sabbaths.3. Passover is a Jewish Sabbath day no matter what day of the week it falls on. None of the Gospels state it must have been the regular weekend Sabbath; instead, they all are clear there was a Passover Sabbath that week. There could have been two Sabbaths.
My position is that scripture does not tell us to celebrate Easter explicitly. Or, being "very clear" as OP claimed. If so, chapter and verse would have been cited and we would have already put this thread to bed.
1 Corinthians 5:8
Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.
1 Corinthians 5:8
Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.
Is the application of this scripture to Easter your personal interpretation or that of Orthodox Christianity? I have never considered "feast" in this context to apply to Easter. I reckon I tend to apply it to the Eucharist. Indeed, in the Eucharistic liturgy of The Episcopal Church, the congregations responds, "Let us keep the feast."
Is the application of this Scripture to Easter your personal interpretation or that of Orthodox Christianity? I have never considered "feast" in this context to apply to Easter. I reckon I tend to apply it to the Eucharist. Indeed, in the Eucharistic liturgy of The Episcopal Church, the congregations responds, "Let us keep the feast."
Is the application of this scripture to Easter your personal interpretation or that of Orthodox Christianity? I have never considered "feast" in this context to apply to Easter. I reckon I tend to apply it to the Eucharist. Indeed, in the Eucharistic liturgy of The Episcopal Church, the congregations responds, "Let us keep the feast."
Why do you think it needs an interpretation? It is very unambiguous and clear IMO...
It is unclear to me, so I was merely trying to understand another perspective.
There are specific instructions in the Old Testament to celebrate Passover. That is why practicing Jews eat the exact same meal every year.
Christians don't celebrate the Jewish Passover (they can, if they want, but historically it has never been Christian practice). What Jesus instructs is the Eucharist, the Lord's Supper.