Objective morality exists in degrees? That makes no sense at all. The absolute on the objective end? That's simply meaningless. Objective morality is a set of laws? You are again confusing absolute with objective. And then requires a person to formulate them? Which would, by definition, make them subjective.
I suggest that we ignore all that. Some of it's not even wrong...
I'd like to respond to these, but I'm glad that you have not left the conversation, so at present I wish to defer to your suggestion minus any negative connotation, if applicable, of "ignore".
Let's run with your comment that 'Love others as yourself is a reasonable moral code to establish objective morality.' If that's your criteria, and you've stated it in various forms in any number of posts, then you have a problem.
Respectfully, I don't see a problem even because I used this principle to surmise that; In the given scenario as originally put forth, it's unreasonable for someone else to make the determination on a personal choice about a personal matter which will only affect you and your family and not them. I don't see the problem with that and I said so when you submitted it to me. If I have a problem, then you have a problem. Compassion (we suffer together), an objective morality.
Going back to euthanasia, someone can, out of love for another, refuse to help them end their life. So according to you, euthanasia is then objectively immoral. Then another person will, out of love for another, help that person to end their life. So according to you, euthanasia is then objectively moral.
Something of a conundrum I think. It seems that, according to you, whether it's moral or immoral depends on the view of the person being asked. They obviously can't be both. Can you please address that directly?
I want to address it, but it's not posed well enough. This is not the original scenario for one thing, and therefore, despite your forthright attention and intention, your paraphrasing of me, will not accurately reflect my original responses.
someone can, out of love for another, refuse to help them end their life. So according to you, euthanasia is then objectively immoral.
(1) This is not the original scenario. You have interjected a second person presenting the alternative determination. It may seem petty, but semantics form in subjective views and it will cause problems in communication down the road, for example when paraphrasing my sentiments.
2)I did not say nor imply, nor discount, that
in the original scenario euthanasia is objectively moral or immoral, and I wouldn't do so here. Understandably, you probably see this as dodging the problem (I'll get to that).
3) In the original scenario, there was no refusal, unless refusal were applied as transitory in the original scenario. That scenario dictates that the person doesn't want the person to die in the first place. But in that scenario the forthcoming decision of whether to help or refuse would be better understood as an application of subjective morality
according to the person making the decision and therefore cannot possibly be subjective immorality, due to the semantics that form in subjective views, as pertains to negative and positive connotations. "
Morality is not immorality in any reasonable subjective deliberation." That statement is objective morality.
Then another person will, out of love for another, help that person to end their life. So according to you, euthanasia is then objectively moral.
1) This is the original scenario.
2) I did not say, nor imply, nor discount that euthanasia is objectively moral.
Something of a conundrum I think. It seems that, according to you, whether it's moral or immoral depends on the view of the person being asked. They obviously can't be both. Can you please address that directly?
This is the problem for me and for everyone. I can't make and shouldn't make an evaluation of what's right or wrong objectively without evaluating the reasoning that supports the determination. Such evaluations could only be made on a case by case basis, and it would be recklessly irresponsible to stamp an absolute right or wrong in one broad sweep for every case based on an ignorance of what's actually happening on the ground. To that end the only pertinent information I see that might help determine anything, is in one of the scenarios, (the original), two people agree.
Therefore, it's unreasonable to remotely claim these two scenarios prove there is no objective morality.
Moreover, reasoning between two absolutes of all-ignorance and all-knowledge doesn't mean that ignorance (the lack of knowledge) proves there is no knowledge. Hence, in a scenario where, given the exact same circumstances (And I mean exact), two different people are trying to do the right thing but end up making two different determinations, it should actually be articulated in our psycholinguistics as one is "righter" than the other. Which can only happen if you believe there is an objective morality.
Finally, compassion is all about not hurting others but helping others. So in the objective view, in this particular situation where hurt is inevitable, it should be reasoned upon by calculating who gets hurt the most. Wherefore the determination is not the business of anyone who is unaffected by the decision. And therefore, according to love others as yourself, I would be a hypocrite to make any judgment implying an intent of immorality, because either way someone else gets slandered.
So I have stated that from the outset and so have you. You reasoned on the moral principle of love others as yourself and I saw no hypocrisy in your words. But I see hypocrisy in using this circumstance to prove there is no objective morality. I'm a Theist who studies psycholinguistics. Any reasoning based on falsehood ends in a contradiction. So it's no wonder that those who claim that there is no Truth are simultaneously claiming something as true.