1 Corinthians 14:22:
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. [KJV]
22 so that the tongues are for a sign, not to the believing, but to the unbelieving; and the prophesy [is] not for the unbelieving, but for the believing, [YLT]
22 So then, tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophecy is not for unbelievers, but for those who believe. [NASB]
Tongues seem to serve multiple functions:
- For private prayer.
- For worship (singing in tongues).
- For prophecy (when interpreted by someone with the gift of interpretation).
- As a sign to unbelievers (the topic of this thread).
Question: In what circumstances is it appropriate to speak in an unlearned tongue in front of an unbeliever
as a sign to them? And a "sign" of what? Why would an unbeliever be impressed if one speaks in tongues in front of them?
As per the event at Pentecost, to hear the wonderful works of God in their native foreign tongue by a believer that does not speak their language. That is how tongues becomes a sign to them, but not always perceived as such if another different foreigner present does not understand that native tongue being spoken to a nearby foreigner for why he would think the believer was drunk.
1 Corinthians 14:21 testify what God's gift of tongues really is; of other men's lips to speak unto the people.
That said; 1 Corinthians 12:4-14 and especially 1 Corinthians 12:19-21 is why tongues can never be for private use, claiming they need no interpretation thus no need of an interpreter and yet Paul said when he speaks in tongues, he prays that somebody will interpret so that tongue will be fruitful to himself.
1 Corinthians 14:12 Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church. 13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret. 14 For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful. 15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.
To turn tongues around from speaking unto the people and just be a means to pray back to God would be an act of confusion which God is not the author of.
Indeed, for all the supposed claims of using tongues in private, yet without interpretation, how can any modern tongue speaker know what benefit that is being done when Paul could not know unless it was interpreted?
That is why that whole chapter was about if any sought a spiritual gift, to seek the gift of prophesy per 1 Corinthians 14:1-2 and began comparing tongues against prophesy to illustrate that tongues was never a stand alone gift for why interpretations was needed for the tongue speaker to understand for that tongue to be fruitful to himself.
Indeed, if the readers had read 1 Corinthians 12:19-21 before the 14th chapter, they would not read otherwise thinking tongues can be for private use.
John 16:13 in all Bible versions testify that the Holy Spirit cannot speak from Himself but speaks what He hears, but the truth is not always maintained in modern Bibles when it comes to Romans 8:26-27 because most imply groans can be uttered whereas the KJV and a few modern Bibles testify that not even His groanings can be uttered.
So how can the Holy Spirit turn God's gift of tongues from speaking unto the people as a sign to unbelievers in hearing the wonderful works of God in their native tongue to be used by the Holy Spirit supposedly in uttering His prayers in gibberish nonsense back to God? John 16:13 says He can't.
And the idea that it is in a secret language so the devil does not know what was prayed for, is giving too much credit to the devil as if he is 'lord" when the Book of Job is about how the devil cannot do anything without God's permission.
So if a believer believes the lie that they can receive the holy Spirit again apart from salvation by a sign of tongues or with evidence of tongues, then that is why it is not the real God's gift of tongues for why it's not coming with any interpretation nor understood by any foreigner.
Isaiah 8:19 testify of how the occult can speak in a pagan supernatural tongue for why God's gift of tongues would never be gibberish nonsense to be assumed for private use just because it comes with no interpretation.
In idolatry in Rome, priests in their respective temple can speak in gibberish nonsense in prayers for the idolator and then they would translate the answer from that "god" to the one paying for that service.
That is why God's gift of tongues can never be for private use and why the apostle John wanted believers to test the spirits as well as the tongues they bring because it is just gibberish nonsense. Any spirit coming over the believer when the Jesus Christ is in us is that spirit of antichrist ( 1 John 4:1-4 ) for why that tongue is gibberish nonsense in speaking as the world speaks in their pagan supernatural tongue per 1 John 4:5-6 for why even that supernatural tongue is to be tested too.
Speaking in gibberish nonsense to an unbeliever which is not in his native tongue nor any other foreign language will hardly serve as a sign to any unbelievers. They will just think the believer is "mad".
Believe it or not, some believers have used tongues as a sign of God calling them into the ministry, but yet as the OP testify, tongues are not to serve as a sign to believers for anything; only to unbelievers.