It wasn't that he became sinful, or that he became a sinner, but that he was counted as sin and was punished as if he were guilty under the law. He remained innocent, spotless, and pure, it was that, as an atonement and sacrifice, he bore the weight of divine wrath.
He bore the wrath that he did not deserve, so that all who are in him are saved.
“God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God” (2 Corinthians 5:21).
“He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; by his wounds you have been healed” (1 Peter 2:24).
In these two verses, it says he bore our sins, and he had no sins but he have sin for us?
The issue I have with propitiation and substitutionary atonement is we are the sinner, for Christ to pay for our sins he must bear them or our sin must be transferred to him in order for him to pay them for us. So what happens to the Holiness of Christ in that exchange/transfer?
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