I hope you will pardon me for not taking the time to read everyone else's replies before posting my own.
I believe the holy scriptures as they were originally written were without error, and 100% inspired by God's holy spirit.
What I do not believe, is that the word of God as we have it today is completely without error. Infallible, yes, but not without error.
However, as in Isaiah 55:11- "So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it."
No matter what version of the Bible you are reading, there are errors in it, whether they are translation errors, punctuation errors, or some other kind of error.
In fact, the KJV Bible, which I myself read, has an entire verse added to it (called the Johannine Comma) that was not in the original manuscripts (1 John 5:7). This is a verse that is sometimes used to support the doctrine of the trinity. I believe in the trinity, but this verse is spurious, meaning that at some point, an over-zealous scribe added it into the text where it didn't belong.
Also, in the original Hebrew and Greek, there were very few forms of punctuation. Only when the scriptures were translated into Latin, German, English, etc. were punctuation marks added. No one can say that the punctuation is inspired. Slight changes in punctuation can change the meaning of entire verses.
One other thing I should mention is that in the book of Jude, which you quote, Jude makes reference to two pseudepigraphical books, the 1st Book of Enoch and The Assumption of Moses. If holy scripture quotes from these two books, then why are they not included in the biblical canon? Some would even go so far as to say that in 1 Peter 3:19, the "he" that is referred to in this verse is not Jesus, but Enoch, based on their reading of the book of Enoch, which describes how Enoch went to preach to the spirits in Hades.
Basically, the point I am trying to make is that even though the Bible is not 100%inerrant, it IS 100% infallible according to Isaiah 55:11, in that anyone can pick up any version of the Bible and be saved by reading it. I think all the arguing about which version of the Bible is the best, most accurate, etc. is all nonsense, for God would not allow man to pervert and twist His holy scriptures so much that they lose their power to save people. God preserves His word, no matter what man does to it, whether he waters it down, adds to or subtracts from it, or even burns it. If the Bible is 100% inerrant, as many people claim, then what purpose does the warning in Revelation 22:18-19 serve? If God's word could not be tampered with, surely these two verses are in vain. But Jesus said in John 10:35, that the scripture cannot be broken.
I believe the holy scriptures as they were originally written were without error, and 100% inspired by God's holy spirit.
What I do not believe, is that the word of God as we have it today is completely without error. Infallible, yes, but not without error.
However, as in Isaiah 55:11- "So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it."
No matter what version of the Bible you are reading, there are errors in it, whether they are translation errors, punctuation errors, or some other kind of error.
In fact, the KJV Bible, which I myself read, has an entire verse added to it (called the Johannine Comma) that was not in the original manuscripts (1 John 5:7). This is a verse that is sometimes used to support the doctrine of the trinity. I believe in the trinity, but this verse is spurious, meaning that at some point, an over-zealous scribe added it into the text where it didn't belong.
Also, in the original Hebrew and Greek, there were very few forms of punctuation. Only when the scriptures were translated into Latin, German, English, etc. were punctuation marks added. No one can say that the punctuation is inspired. Slight changes in punctuation can change the meaning of entire verses.
One other thing I should mention is that in the book of Jude, which you quote, Jude makes reference to two pseudepigraphical books, the 1st Book of Enoch and The Assumption of Moses. If holy scripture quotes from these two books, then why are they not included in the biblical canon? Some would even go so far as to say that in 1 Peter 3:19, the "he" that is referred to in this verse is not Jesus, but Enoch, based on their reading of the book of Enoch, which describes how Enoch went to preach to the spirits in Hades.
Basically, the point I am trying to make is that even though the Bible is not 100%inerrant, it IS 100% infallible according to Isaiah 55:11, in that anyone can pick up any version of the Bible and be saved by reading it. I think all the arguing about which version of the Bible is the best, most accurate, etc. is all nonsense, for God would not allow man to pervert and twist His holy scriptures so much that they lose their power to save people. God preserves His word, no matter what man does to it, whether he waters it down, adds to or subtracts from it, or even burns it. If the Bible is 100% inerrant, as many people claim, then what purpose does the warning in Revelation 22:18-19 serve? If God's word could not be tampered with, surely these two verses are in vain. But Jesus said in John 10:35, that the scripture cannot be broken.
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