My responses will be limited to on issue at a time as it becomes somewhat tedious to address so many issues at one time. However, the following is an extensive explanation, so be patient.
Most Christians believe that all prophecy applies to all people for all time. You cite Jeremiah 31:31 as an example of this, and then say that I propose that ALL prophecy will not be fulfilled because I suggested that THIS prophecy would not be fulfilled due to Israel's failure to finish the work God called them to do.
I don't think your description of what most Christians believe is either accurate nor germane to what Jeremiah prophesied. It was Jesus Who equated prophecy with the law, and determined that both would be fulfilled in their totality, leaving nothing concerning Him unfulfilled. He made no statement introducing a litmus test of God's performance based on what fallen humans weren't able to do.
However, God told Daniel that any unfulfilled prophecy would be sealed up until the time of the end (Dan.12:9).
No, Daniel made no such statement, and it is clear you're reading something into the text that isn't there.
Daniel 12
7 Then I heard the man clothed in linen, who was above the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand to heaven, and swore by Him who lives forever, that it shall be for a time, times, and half a time; and when the power of the holy people has been completely shattered, all these things shall be finished.
8 Although I heard, I did not understand. Then I said, "My lord, what shall be the end of these things?"
9 And he said, "Go your way, Daniel, for the words are closed up and sealed till the time of the end.
What Daniel had just been shown was specified to pertain to a time far ahead of him. It does not apply to anything else, and it is not conditional, as "
all these things shall be finished".
Prophecy does have a proper time for fulfillment. If that time comes and goes without the prophecy being fulfilled then that particular prophecy will never be fulfilled. Such is the case for the prophecies in Jer.31:31 and Dan. 9:24.
Neither is a conditional prophecy, and both have been fulfilled. God promised an end to transgressions, and that has been accomplished. God promised a new covenant, and that has also been fulfilled.
Please note who the prophecy of Jer.31:31 is addressed to: the house of Israel AND the house of Judah.
The covenant to come was called "new" pertinent to them because they were the sole recipients of the first covenant that was to be replaced. For the Gentiles, reception of the new covenant wasn't "new" in that it replaced a prior covenant, because they never received the covenant from Mount Sinai.
At the time Jeremiah was given this particular prophecy the southern kingdom of Judah was in residence in Palestine (today's location) and the northern kingdom of Israel was no longer in existence, having been taken into captivity and disbursed. A little later Babylon took Judah into captivity.
It appears that you confused the "who" with the "where", and this point isn't germane at all.
This Covenant was going to be 'renewed' with both houses of Israel as it had been in the days of Israel at Sinai and before either kingdom was taken captive. The word in Hebrew is Strongs 2318 - chadash, meaning causatively to renew. God is telling Jeremiah that He is planning on renewing the Covenant that He gave His kingdom at Sinai with both the houses of Israel and Judah, and that renewal would take place in the hearts and minds of the people of BOTH the southern and northern kingdoms when they rejoined to form a unified Israel again.
No, it wasn't Jeremiah who wrote that at all. That was Daniel talking about a unrelated promise to unify the two people at a time in the end, consistent with Ezekiel, and Daniel's vision has no relation to Jeremiah nor is it conditional. Unification of Israel has no relation to a new covenant at all. You're using the curse of Isaiah 28:13 of assembling disparate messages to synthesize a new message none of the Biblical authors wrote, and it is a snare and a trap that deludes those who employ this method of eisegesis.
It would not be on tables of Stone as before. This indicates a change of location for the same Covenant, NOT a completely different Covenant than was previously given.
Jeremiah specified a
new covenant, and that alone makes the one it replaced obsolete - just as Hebrews 8:13 concludes. Moreover, Jeremiah 31:32 specifies the new covenant would not be according to the covenant issued at Mount Sinai, settling the matter of the first covenant becoming obsolete. It wasn't the content inscribed on tables of stone that would change location, as that law wasn't written into anyone. It is God's "
My law" that enters us, which is not according to Sinai. This is a personal pronoun that suggests God owns this "law" and is also subject to this "law". The result of this "law" entering us is a personal knowledge of the Creator, and not the created anymore (Jeremiah 31:34). This was fulfilled as Peter observed, recorded in Acts 15 when the council at Jerusalem considered the requirement of believing Pharisees to become circumcised and comply with the law mediated by Moses:
7 And when there had been much dispute, Peter rose up and said to them: "Men and brethren, you know that a good while ago God chose among us, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe.
8 "So God, who knows the heart, acknowledged them by giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He did to us,
9 "and made no distinction between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith.
10 "Now therefore, why do you test God by putting a yoke on the neck of the disciples which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear?
11 "But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved in the same manner as they."
The Gentiles received the law that gave them personal knowledge of God, and they never received the law from Mount Sinai and they were never instructed to keep it. Suggesting that the law from Mount Sinai entered anyone is absurd when you find that no one is moved by the Holy Ghost to revive the Levitical priesthood, make the twice-daily oblations of burnt offerings, and attempt to keep the sabbath day holy according to the law that ordained it. All of these things were ordained at Mount Sinai, and have jurisdiction equal to the tables of stone with the Ten Commandments during the first covenant's tenure.
This would only have occurred had Israel completed the task for which God had re-established them when He would bring them out of captivity in Babylon. See Dan. 9:24. Israel did not fulfill their role in finishing the requirements of this prophecy, therefore God did not re-establish BOTH Judah and Israel as ONE nation, and therefore God did not, and will never, re-establish or renew the Covenant with the descendants of Israel. Neither the prophecy of Dan. 9:24 or of Jer. 31:31 will be fulfilled because Israel rejected their King and put Him on a cross. In 33 CE at the end of the 490 years of Dan. 9:24 the status of Kingdom of Heaven was removed from Israel, making any prophecies concerning Israel and their role in the time of the end moot and of none effect.
This hybrid assembly of disparate points was already shown to be a trap you fabricated.
Israel as God's Kingdom no longer exists and therefore any prophecies that have not already been fulfilled will never be fulfilled for Israel, including the so called 'new covenant' that Paul bases his entire salvation theology on.
First of all, Galatians 4:1-7 builds on the exact point Jesus taught Peter in Matthew 17:24-26, showing that Paul is consistent with Jesus. Second of all, you again concluded prophecy will never be fulfilled because you suggest tying God's hands with the failures of mankind and making His Word void. That Israel hasn't been written into the dustbin of history shows that you're not cognizant of events that have transpired the last few decades.
Jeremiah 16
14 "Therefore behold, the days are coming," says the LORD, "that it shall no more be said, `The LORD lives who brought up the children of Israel from the land of Egypt,'
15 "but, `The LORD lives who brought up the children of Israel from the land of the north and from all the lands where He had driven them.' For I will bring them back into their land which I gave to their fathers.
16 "Behold, I will send for many fishermen," says the LORD, "and they shall fish them; and afterward I will send for many hunters, and they shall hunt them from every mountain and every hill, and out of the holes of the rocks.
17 "For My eyes are on all their ways; they are not hidden from My face, nor is their iniquity hidden from My eyes.
This prophecy has happened, and hunters such as Adolf Hitler have driven the people back to the land that was given to their fathers. Isaiah 66:8's "one day" was fulfilled in 1948.
THIS DID NOT HAPPEN, AND NEVER WILL HAPPEN because the time for the fulfillment of this prophecy is long past.
This takes you right back to Matthew 5.
17 ¶ "Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill.
18 "For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled.
Jesus stated it will happen, history records that it did happen, and your artificial litmus test didn't affect God's performance in the slightest.