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What language does Allah speak?

SanFrank

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That wouldn't have happened if they had separated the goats and put them on the left :D
Yes, they probably put them on the right side.

You can say that but it doesn't make it true!

I produce evidence you produce words which you would like to be true.

Poor very poor!
I've enjoyed reading your replies.

What do you know of Qosim, Tahir Abd Munaf and Ibrahim? I understand they were sons born to muhammad but all died as toddlers; information is scarce. But if it is true, why would 'allah' (assuming for a minute that his 'allah' is the same god of christianity) kill off his sons and not give muhammad any heirs? (ironic because muhammad surely tried)
 
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karim06518

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Originally posted by balaclava:
We can talk about who were the Arabs, whether the Quraish were true Arabs, the origins or the Arab language, how it evolved and how it changed, whether the original verses dictated by Muhammad were dictated in Arabic or written in Arabic and there’s an abundance of evidence to show that the script used at that time in that region was NOT the same as the Arabic used today but that question posed by the OP pertained to the question, are the Arabic verses in today’s copies of the Quran the same language and text as the original verses dictated by Muhammad and written down by the various scribes who recorded them as they are claimed to be my you ( and all Muslim). We can answer this easily by simply taking a look at the original verses written on the original bits of hide and bone” - Ooops, oh no – we can’t do that because Uthman, the third Caliph (644-656) destroyed all the originals just 20 years after Muhammad’s death. WHY? Why did he do that? Clearly he did it to deny anyone the opportunity to see them. WHY? Why did he not want anyone to see the originals? Why, did he instigate the question, the doubt; did he know that keeping them for posterity would cause more doubt. If we can answer the question – why did he destroy the originals we might come to an answer posed by the OP and answers to lots of questions about Islam!


Your penchant for basing your arguments on erroneous and inaccurate statements is astounding. The above paragraph contains several such statements. I’ll start by pointing out how you first admit in a roundabout way that you brought up and tried to discuss points that were essentially irrelevant to the question posed by the OP (i.e. who were the Arabs, whether the Quraish were true Arabs, the origins of the Arab language, etc.). Nevertheless, all of those points were responded to and addressed sufficiently enough to illustrate how baseless your claims were. Next, you go on to claim that there’s an abundance of evidence to show that the script used at the time of Muhammad in the region he was in was not the same as the Arabic script used today. In an earlier post you spend some time discussing the Kufic script, which was used during the early Islamic period, but you never talk about the Arabic script that is used today and what its relationship is to the Kufic script. Therefore, you imply that since the script that was used during Muhammad’s time is different from what is used today, a different language must have been used. I would like to respond to that claim. In an earlier post you stated that the al-mushaf al-Uthmani was written in the Kufic script, which you claimed to be the most commonly used script in the region at the time. Now generally speaking, there were two types of scripts used early on; Kufic and Naskhi. Kufic script is generally considered to be the earlier of the two scripts that were used. The Kufic script is more angular while the Naskhi script is more cursive. The modern Arabic script that is used today developed from the Naskhi script. Despite the different scripts being used, all represent the language of Arabic. The different scripts are not associated with different languages. Individuals who study languages never suggest that the different scripts are associated with different languages when discussing the Arabic language. Your suggestion is completely unfounded. Your unfamiliarity with the Arabic language and its history continue to shine through in your posts.

In your paragraph above you also make it seem as if Uthman personally destroyed all of the original verses “written on bits of hide and bones” in order to deny anyone else the opportunity to see them because if that were to happen, it would create more doubt. That thesis is full of inaccuracies. I have already provided an accurate account of events pertaining to the preservation of the Qur’an under the reign of Uthman in a previous post. However, you apparently decided to completely ignore/reject what I had written and simply continue to put forth the same tired inquiries like a broken record. Before you set out to reject a claim, make sure you get the facts straight first. An honest effort at doing that will help alleviate questions you may have. What follows is part of an earlier post pertaining to Uthman and his efforts at preserving the Qur’an in written form along with a more detailed explanation as to why he ordered all private copies (not Hafsah’s copy, which is the original collection that you are referring to) destroyed:


Originally posted by karim06518:
…During the reign of Uthman, the next leader of the Muslims after Umar, circumstances were brought to his attention which made it necessary to circulate official copies of the Qur’an, transcribed by official scribes, and suppress all those made by private individuals. Thus, after consultation with the general body of the Companions, it was decided that the collection made in the time of Abu Bakr would be obtained from Hafsah in order to have official copies transcribed from it for circulation. All private copies that existed were to be destroyed, which were perhaps not made with sufficient care and might have contained any variation of reading. Had the actions of Uthman in destroying all private copies of the Qur’an been arbitrary or unjustifiable, the Companions of the prophet would never have agreed to it. They, however, not only approved of his actions but also willingly carried out his orders. Thus, the purity of the text of the Qur’an can be conclusively demonstrated. The collection of Abu Bakr was a faithful reproduction of the revelation as reduced to writing in the presence of the prophet Muhammad, and agreed every bit in text as well as arrangement, with the Holy Qur’an as preserved in the memories of the Companions. The copies circulated by Uthman were true and faithful copies of Abu Bakr’s collection and these copies have admittedly remained unaltered for over fourteen hundred years…


The circumstances that I am referring to which prompted Uthman to act is the fact that Uthman was told by one of his generals that there were variations in the modes of reading the Qur’an in distant parts of the Muslim world. No such differences were pointed out to have existed anywhere within Arabia. It was only in newly converted countries, where Arabic was not spoken, that these differences were noticed. Although they were only differences in modes of reading or pronunctiation in different dialects, it was feared that if nothing was done to put a stop to the slight differences existing at the time, they might, after a few generations, develop into serious ones. And so those were the reasons why Uthman ordered the destruction of all private copies (but not the original collection in Hafsah’s possession).

Wassalam,
Karim
 
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karim06518

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Originally posted by SanFrank:
I've enjoyed reading your replies.

What do you know of Qosim, Tahir Abd Munaf and Ibrahim? I understand they were sons born to muhammad but all died as toddlers; information is scarce. But if it is true, why would 'allah' (assuming for a minute that his 'allah' is the same god of christianity) kill off his sons and not give muhammad any heirs? (ironic because muhammad surely tried)


I’m not sure I follow your logic here. Are you saying that if Muhammad had a male heir, that would help to convince you of the veracity and truth of the religion of Islam???

Wassalam,
Karim
 
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SanFrank

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Originally posted by SanFrank:
I've enjoyed reading your replies.

What do you know of Qosim, Tahir Abd Munaf and Ibrahim? I understand they were sons born to muhammad but all died as toddlers; information is scarce. But if it is true, why would 'allah' (assuming for a minute that his 'allah' is the same god of christianity) kill off his sons and not give muhammad any heirs? (ironic because muhammad surely tried)


I’m not sure I follow your logic here. Are you saying that if Muhammad had a male heir, that would help to convince you of the veracity and truth of the religion of Islam???

Wassalam,
Karim
sura 2.116 They said, "god has begotten a son!" Be He glorified; never!"
sura 23.91 "god has never begotten a son."
sura 112.3 "Never did He beget."


There was a man named Charles Darwin who not only invented a theory of evolution but who stopped attending his church and who lost faith in god on the death of his 10 year old daughter, Annie Darwin. Two other of his children died at infancy. The cause of their deaths is thought due to inbreeding problems as his wife was a first cousin. I don't know what the death of a child feels like nor do I know the desperation felt by the parents. It would make for an interesting study.

On its face, muhammad seems to transfer his sonlessness to his 'allah'; and putting a condition on 'allah' by saying never.
 
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smaneck

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What do you know of Qosim, Tahir Abd Munaf and Ibrahim? I understand they were sons born to muhammad but all died as toddlers; information is scarce. But if it is true, why would 'allah' (assuming for a minute that his 'allah' is the same god of christianity) kill off his sons and not give muhammad any heirs? (ironic because muhammad surely tried)

I hate to break it to you but babies die all the time and God allows it whether you call Him Allah or Yahweh.
 
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SanFrank

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BUMP
Originally Posted by karim06518
Originally posted by SanFrank:
I've enjoyed reading your replies.

What do you know of Qosim, Tahir Abd Munaf and Ibrahim? I understand they were sons born to muhammad but all died as toddlers; information is scarce. But if it is true, why would 'allah' (assuming for a minute that his 'allah' is the same god of christianity) kill off his sons and not give muhammad any heirs? (ironic because muhammad surely tried)


I’m not sure I follow your logic here. Are you saying that if Muhammad had a male heir, that would help to convince you of the veracity and truth of the religion of Islam???

Wassalam,
Karim
sura 2.116 They said, "god has begotten a son!" Be He glorified; never!"
sura 23.91 "god has never begotten a son."
sura 112.3 "Never did He beget."


There was a man named Charles Darwin who not only invented a theory of evolution but who stopped attending his church and who lost faith in god on the death of his 10 year old daughter, Annie Darwin. Two other of his children died at infancy. The cause of their deaths is thought due to inbreeding problems as his wife was a first cousin. I don't know what the death of a child feels like nor do I know the desperation felt by the parents. It would make for an interesting study.

On its face, muhammad seems to transfer his sonlessness to his 'allah'; and putting a condition on 'allah' by saying never.
 
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hikersong

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BUMP There was a man named Charles Darwin who not only invented a theory of evolution but who stopped attending his church and who lost faith in god on the death of his 10 year old daughter, Annie Darwin. Two other of his children died at infancy. The cause of their deaths is thought due to inbreeding problems as his wife was a first cousin. I don't know what the death of a child feels like nor do I know the desperation felt by the parents. It would make for an interesting study.

On its face, muhammad seems to transfer his sonlessness to his 'allah'; and putting a condition on 'allah' by saying never.

It is maybe interesting to ponder the psychological reasons for the way people many years ago developed their ideas and behaved as they did, but it will always be conjecture. It's often very difficult to get the basic facts about their lives correct, so to know what was going on in their heads could only be guess work. Conjecture by a person who hates the ideas of said person is not going to be more accurate. Almost certainly less so.
 
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ViaCrucis

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I recall reading an article once that mentioned how during the middle ages a priest from Basque country tried to get the Church leadership to say that Basque was the original language, the language of creation and heaven and that which was spoken by Adam. It stemmed in part because Basque, being a language isolate, is completely unique and thus the "logic" was that it must be because it wasn't of human origination.

It never flew, but hey.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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