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Another interesting thing to ponder as I question everything these days from traditions and assumptions handed down in Christendom. Where does scripture say something changed in man’s nature after the fall and in the image of God . James 3:9 and other passages assume man is still in that same image of God . Food for thought .
How do you mean that life/awareness is uncaused? It's pretty obvious that God caused it.
Mark Quayle said: ↑
Let me try this on. You admit that if we have a gift God gives us, he caused us to have the gift? But if he gave us the Holy Spirit, that gift is not caused, though it be caused that we have it. Thus, you reason, anything God gives us is the same as the Holy Spirit, and thus not caused? Is the life and breath we have not caused? Well, you said the Holy Spirit was a gift but is not caused. Then you say the other gifts God gives are not caused. How not? Are they divine persons or divine facts?
A person, caused to be eternal, cannot have uncaused free will as God does; one simple way is that if they do have it, God caused it. Therefore, caused. Self-contradictory.
Your issue is with God's economy.
If I told you that, I would have to shoot you. . .Lots of conjecture do you have scripture to support the above assumptions?
For me the most crucial issue I have with ' What's wrong with Calvinism' is the extent of the atonement. Hopefully we all agree that salvation is provided for by virtue of Christ’s redemptive work on the Cross.
As seen in John 3:16
So, are you saying that Christ paid for the sin of the unbeliever, who also pays for the same sin again when he is condemned?“For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.
So the question, then, is: For whom did Christ die—for the elect only, or for all? The question is not quite that simple, but that is the issue.
Then the “T” word
The phrase total depravity has long been employed by Reformed theologians and others to describe the fallen state of man. Although the language is adequate when properly defined, the phrases pervasive depravity and radical depravity may be more appropriate. To say that every man is totally depraved does not mean that he is as bad as he could be or that his every deed is entirely or perfectly evil. Rather it means that depravity, or moral corruption, has affected his entire being—body, intellect, and will.
Agreed. . .unregenerate man does not desire to obey (Romans 8:7-8; 1 Corinthians 2:14;In the following, we will consider what total depravity does mean and does not mean.
Finally, total depravity does not mean that men do not possess the necessary faculties to obey God. Man is not a victim who desires to obey but is unable to because of factors beyond his control.
Agreed (Romans 8:7-8).God has endowed man with an intellect, a will, and a freedom to choose. Man is therefore responsible before God as a moral agent. Total depravity does mean that man cannot submit himself to God because he will not, and he will not because of his own hostility toward God. From The Gospel’s Power and Message-Paul Washer
Another interesting thing to ponder as I question everything these days from traditions and assumptions handed down in Christendom. Where does scripture say something changed in man’s nature after the fall and in the image of God . James 3:9 and other passages assume man is still in that same image of God . Food for thought .
So, are you saying that Christ paid for the sin of the unbeliever, who also pays for the same sin again when he is condemned?
Are you sure it is misrepresentation on their part, or not apprehending the whole counsel of God on other's part?I wouldn't say. But I don't like God being misrepresented.
And addressed in the following. . .which evidently is just to blow in the wind:Another interesting thing to ponder as I question everything these days from traditions and assumptions handed down in Christendom. Where does scripture say something changed in man’s nature after the fall and in the image of God . James 3:9 and other passages assume man is still in that same image of God . Food for thought .
Ask Paul. . .
"in the flesh (sinful nature), I am a slave to sin." (Romans 7:25)
Were we created as unfree slaves in the Garden?
We are "by nature, objects of wrath" (Ephesians 2:3)
Were our natures created as objects of wrath in the Garden?
All that God made at creation was "very good" (Genesis 1:31).
So when did it change?
With study, you'll find it explained in the NT.
So, are you saying that Christ paid for the sin of the unbeliever, who also pays for the same sin again when he is condemned?
Is that justice on God's parts, requiring payment twice for the same sin?
You did not answer my question. . .did you not understand it?Jesus paid for our sin once and for all.
‘By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all’ (v. 10); then: ‘But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God’ (v. 12); and: ‘For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified’ (v. 14). (Notice the repetition of the word one.) Peter, too, says the same thing: ‘Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things … but with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot’ (1 Pet. 1:18–19).
Perhaps you would like to exegete Romans 9:16-23, being true to its words, an in its context. . .
Are you sure it is misrepresentation on their part, or not apprehending the whole counsel of God on other's part?
Perhaps you would like to exegete Romans 9:16-23, being true to its words, and its context. . .
Feel free to do so in your exegesis, demonstrating the connection in consistency with the text.Thank you, but no thank you! I think it's useful to read further on to get the whole context.
You seem stressed. . .I will pray for you.God is the only one I review my doctrine with. Your accusation is probably a rule violation so
I will ask you to let this one drop since you can't take a hint.
No, I did not understand it. That was the best answer I could come up with at the time. Explain your question a bit more and I'll give it another try.You did not answer my question. . .did you not understand it?
So, are you saying that Christ paid for the sin of the unbeliever, who also pays for the same sin again when he is condemned?
That's okay. . .I don't think you were trying to explain it, you were simply stating it.No, I did not understand it. That was the best answer I could come up with at the time. Explain your question a bit more and I'll give it another try.