Paul didn't make a mistake. If mistakes are made, it's in how we interpret it. There seems to be a few options on the table.
Predestination can mean God foresees and creates what God foresees. That doesn't tell us much. That's just God being God, knowing all. In short, that just means God created.
Predestined can mean God chooses those who are saved. That's the usual sense of "predestined." It is destined by God. That's pretty cut and dry but easy enough.
If we say predestined means God foresaw human choices and who would choose faith, i.e., those who choose come to faith, then we have problems. What is God predestining? God is not predestining choices, that would bring us back to the usual meaning, i.e., God chooses who chooses. It seems what is being predestined is a particular world, i.e., a world in which those who choose come to faith.
If that's the case, then the question becomes: Does God have many worlds to choose from or just one? If God has many possible worlds to choose from, then God still chooses those who will choose because God could have chosen a world where those who come to faith in this world do not choose faith in that one. If God has only one world to choose from, then God doesn't predestined or elect at all. God simply creates the only possible world, and humans predestined and elect themselves, which God obviously foresaw. In other words, those words, predestined and election, are emptied of meaning. They simply say that God foresaw and created, which means God created.
I think the conclusion is the freewill/God foresaw doctrine of predestination is incoherent if it's goal is to secure human freedom and still believe in predestination and election in any meaningful sense.
It is not sufficient to believe it and then write it. You’ve made no factual demonstration of why exactly free will, foreknowledge, elect and predestination as represented Biblically, are incompatible and/or cannot coexist. Neither have you presented a reasoned argument for such a view, or any combination of a reasoned argument with facts for your claim.
First, the word “elect” in the OT and NT means “to choose: chosen; selected.”
How exactly this meaning is incompatible with free will is a mystery, a mystery you’ve not bothered to unravel.
God perfectly foreknew A.) the decisions and behaviors people, by exercising free will, would make in this creation B.) the decisions and responses people would freely make in relation to His involvement and intervention into human affairs C)
foreknowledge of who would freely choose to believe Jesus is the Son of God who C1) freely choose to believe Jesus died for sins while He never sinned C2)
freely choose to believe Jesus was resurrected F) of the sea of humanity there are a group of people who so believe C1-C2, believers, and they are G) chosen, elected by God, to justified by their belief in Jesus and have everlasting life and H) this plan of salvation and eternal life is for the group of people who freely chose to so believe and was the plan from the beginning, where he “predestined” a group of people, those who freely chose to believe, for salvation and eternal life.
Now, why exactly the above is incompatible with free will, where
free will is a person is free to perform an action, free to not perform an action, there doesn’t exist any causal laws, any external causes, no antecedent conditions that make the person act or make the person not to act, isn’t obvious.
To the contrary, the above shows free will, foreknowledge, and predestination are compatible.
What is important is God chose to intervene in human affairs and intervene in such a way that permitted a specific kind of elected people, a specific kind of “chosen” people. It was God’s specific acts of intervening in human affairs that permitted an “elected” people.
The fact people freely choose to be receptive to God’s acts of intervention, and he perfectly foreknew they/who would freely choose to believe, doesn’t diminish the fundamental necessity it is and was God’s intervention they are freely choosing to respond to, and absent that intervention by God, then there isn’t an “elected” people by these means, despite the people having free will. God chose His means of intervening in human affairs and rendered His intervening acts as resulting in an “elected” people based on their faith in Him and what He did. This plan of salvation and eternal life for those who believe (his elect, his chosen, are those who have faith and believe) existed from the beginning and before the beginning, this is the “predestined” aspect. From the beginning, before perhaps the beginning of earth, this plan of salvation and eternal life for believers means God chose, decided, from the beginning that those who have faith and believe in what He did shall be saved, justified, and receive eternal life.
There isn’t any incoherence between perfect foreknowledge, free will, the elect, and predestined.
Edit: I think one could argue that if God has only one world to choose from, then God ultimately predestined who is saved, assuming that God could have not created, which would be an orthodox position for God to be free not to create. But that abrogates human freedom since there is only one way our lives could go. Human freedom needs the possibility of many worlds, as many as there are choices. But then, in that case, God still chooses who chooses.
No, there isn’t any Biblical verse that supports your claim “God still chooses who chooses” where this phrase means the person is choosing because God caused them to choose. There’s no verse demonstrating God caused, coerced, forced, or strongly actualized any person to choose or do anything.
And human freedom does not depend on “the possibility of many worlds.” Human freedom, in the context of making choices/behaviors, is the person has the power to choose/act, the power not to choose/not to act, and there isn’t any antecedent conditions that cause a decision/action or lack of either. (See earlier meaning above.)
Predestination can mean God foresees and creates what God foresees.
It can? And your source for this meaning of predestination is what? Because, an exhaustive search of the meaning of “predestination” doesn’t lend any support to what you’ve said above.
It seems what is being predestined is a particular world, i.e., a world in which those who choose come to faith.
At
best all you’ve established is God “predestined” a “world in which those who choose come to faith” by their own free will. The fact God “predestined” this particular world, i.e. He had a plan and purpose in creating this world and a plan and purpose for humanity, isn’t and doesn’t prohibit free will of the people, especially since the plan and purpose can include free will.