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What is wrong with Calvinism ?

Jesus is YHWH

my Lord and my God !
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Do we find that phenomenon throughout the NT at rebirth, or only in the beginning as a witness to the gospel?

No, I did not, and still do not.
So then why would you think Paul’s conversion is the norm ?

All the disciples spoke in tongues with their new birth at Pentecost which was the norm .
 
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Clare73

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Are you sure about that?
I believe what the NT Scriptures teach:

1 Corinthians 2:14 teaches the impossibility of receiving the things of God in the gospel apart from the Holy Spirit.
Romans 8:7-8 teaches the impossibility of the sinful mind without the Holy Spirit to submit to God.
John 14:17 teaches the impossibility of unregenerate man accepting the Holy Spirit.

Paul is a perfect example of that. A Hebrew of Hebrews, but blind to the gospel, which he hated so much he persecuted those who believed it.

Matthew 20:13-15 teaches an absolute sovereignty in the dispensing of mercy by God.
John 3:7-8 teaches an absolutely sovereign rebirth by the choice and will of God (the meaning of "sovereign").

Acts 9:3-8 describes such an event of rebirth with the apostle Paul, where no speaking in tongues is mentioned.
Acts 16:25-30 presents another such event accompanied with another such conversion, again no speaking in tongues is mentioned.

And we see it still going on today, in the testimony of believers witnessing to the power of God acting in their rebirth and conviction, to which those who knew them can testify.

Have I presented anything inconsistent with NT teaching above?
Am I believing the wrong thing?
 
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Clare73

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So then why would you think Paul’s conversion is the norm ?

All the disciples spoke in tongues with their new birth at Pentecost which was the norm .
Paul's conversion is not the "norm" in that not everyone is knocked off his horse.
But his conversion is the norm in that it is the result of rebirth by the sovereign Holy Spirit (John 3:8), which is the only way there is rebirth, and which there can be no faith without.

So Paul was not truly converted because he did not speak in tongues?

Are you sure about that conclusion regarding norms?

Are we talking about "norms," or are we talking about spiritual reality and truth?
 
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Jesus is YHWH

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So Paul was not truly converted because he did not speak in tongues?

Are you sure about that conclusion?

Are we talking about "norms," or are we talking about spiritual reality and truth?
Paul says he spoke in tongues .

“ I thank my God I speak with tongues more than ye all” — I Corinthians 14:18.
 
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Clare73

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Paul says he spoke in tongues .

“ I thank my God I speak with tongues more than ye all” — I Corinthians 14:18.
Not in the account of his conversion, to which I was referring.
 
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Clare73

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And it’s not the norm in Christendom. It’s the exception not the rule

hope this helps !!!
Did you not say it was the norm in post #861?

Good to see we agree on that.
 
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Presbyterian Continuist

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Is that the sense of apostolic teaching in 1 Corinthians 2:14 or Romans 8:7-8 regarding the unregenerate--those who do not have the Holy Spirit?
Those two references describe the state of people as the result of Adam's disobedience. The parable of the sower refers to the four responses to hearing and receiving the Gospel of Christ.
 
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Does Jesus' interpretation disagree with 1 Corinthians 2:14? Yes or no?

It's not different, it's more fully revealed in apostolic teaching.
Scripture is not different from (against) itself, Scripture is in harmony with itself.
You are twisting the Scripture to try and merge two different references to mean the same thing. It seems that you are determined to make the parable of the sower mean the same as 1 Corinthians 2:14.
 
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iwbswiaihl

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Paul says he spoke in tongues .

“ I thank my God I speak with tongues more than ye all” — I Corinthians 14:18.
Yes, but what he was talking about by saying tongues was different languages. That is all it means in the scriptures, just like in Acts when the Holy Spirit was given: 2 When the Day of Pentecost had fully come, they were all with one accord in one place. 2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven, as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled the whole house where they were sitting. 3 Then there appeared to them divided tongues, as of fire, and one sat upon each of them. 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. 5 And there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men, from every nation under heaven. 6 And when this sound occurred, the multitude came together, and were confused, because everyone heard them speak in his own language. 7 Then they were all amazed and marveled, saying to one another, “Look, are not all these who speak Galileans? 8 And how is it that we hear, each in our own language in which we were born? 9 Parthians and Medes and Elamites, those dwelling in Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya adjoining Cyrene, visitors from Rome, both Jews and proselytes, 11 Cretans and Arabs—we hear them speaking in our own tongues the wonderful works of God.” 12 So they were all amazed and perplexed, saying to one another, “Whatever could this mean?” v8 we hear, each in our own language, that is what would have meant also, he spoke many different language to those he witness to, whether learned or by a gift from the Lord, not just an unknown utterance, that is why one is to silent if there is no interpreter.
 
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ReverendRV

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I probably could be accused of the same thing. I state my opinion; but it is Grounded...
 
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This is an example of eisegesis - reading much more into the text than what is actually there. When proper exegesis is applied to the Parable of the Sower, we see that it is just a simple explanation of the four different ways the preaching of the kingdom is received and the resulting outcomes. Eisegesis happens when Calvinist theology is shoehorned into the text to twist and complicate it and to make it mean more than what Jesus intended it.
 
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iwbswiaihl

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That still does not mean that what I posted was not right in context of what Paul said in Acts 16 if so point out where I made a mistake in my reply. You bring up different context, to be true the context must be answered and show where something was stated that was wrong. At least, that would be my understanding, nothing in Acts 16 was the same as your points you now are making, we need to stay in context of the post, and to be truth, all the happening still have to agree in principle, don't they?
 
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ReverendRV

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I wouldn't say it's Eisegesis to say that when a Farmer prepares the Soil, he does this by Plowing it. It is often said that Christ spoke to an Agrarian Society in a way they could understand. I think it's actually Exegesis to say the Soil is Good because of the Tilling. Perhaps you are right though. Maybe the Good Soil was Prepared by the Farmer when he Limed it? I think it's safe to say that the Farmer is God, despite the Passage not saying he is God. An Exegesis can go too far and thwart Good Theology...

Sorry, my phone is spazing out. If I don't answer much, this is why...
 
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The text doesn't say that. Jesus did not include it in His interpretation to the disciples.

A more suitable reference to reflect what you are saying is Hosea 10:12:
"Sow to yourselves in righteousness, reap in mercy, break up your fallow ground; for it is time to seek the Lord, till He come and rain righteousness upon you."
 
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Clare73

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Those two references describe the state of people as the result of Adam's disobedience. The parable of the sower refers to the four responses to hearing and receiving the Gospel of Christ.
Do you not think responses to the gospel are determined by our state (nature) of being born of Adam?

Are rattlesnake responses to what they encounter determined by their nature of being born of a rattlesnake?
 
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ReverendRV

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Fair enough...

I say this on my other Discussion Forum, but I'm not sure if it's applicable here; "These are the Theology Boards; not the Exegesis Alone Boards", or something similar. My point is that Systematic Theology tells us the Farmer is God. Is the Farmer God? If you agree the Farmer is God, you do so despite Exegesis. Would you say there's something you believe to be Biblical that's not a Verbatim Verse of Scripture?

I'm not the Christian who will be coerced to stop believing Biblical Theology just because there is no quote-unquote Verse for it. Good Theology is as true as the Bible is. God is the Farmer, right?
 
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Clare73

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You are twisting the Scripture to try and merge two different references to mean the same thing. It seems that you are determined to make the parable of the sower mean the same as 1 Corinthians 2:14.
Maybe it's because both of them treat of the same human nature being demonstrated; i.e., its inability to lay hold of (apprehend) the things of God without the rebirth.
 
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