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EXACTLY!!!!!!!
Amen!!!
Adveristment: Check out my thread: "Humility and Theology" here in GT - it's no doubt buried deep now...
Yes, it certainly IS theoretically possible that Joseph Smith was 100% correct and lots of dogmas are missing from the Bible. But, frankly, I'd rather base my dogmas on what we know God said than what some denomination says God said, I'd rather run with God's infallible, apostolic, authoritative, first-century, DIVINELY-inspired Word - written so that it's alterable by none and knowable by all. Cuz anyone can claim anything (and lots do). But that's just me.
You sure? I got a couple golden plates I found in my back yard I wanted to sell, I will give you a good price on them.
Who would have thunk it?!?
That when Paul wrote...
"The church is the pillar and foundation of truth."
...what he really was doing was plugging for Sola Scriptura 300 years before the bible!
The argument basically is:
"Forget what Paul meant and what he was referring to in the letter. The only truth that we can count on is the bible."
Racer, you have a basic misunderstanding and even a mistrust of christianity.
The bible is not, has never been, and never will be the only source of revelation and guidance for christians.
Reading the bible will tell you that scripture nowhere claims to be the sole source of guidance for jews or christians and directly tells us otherwise.
The Holy Spirit inspired certain authors to write what God wished to reveal to humanity
and later guided the bishops of the church to determine which writings out of the 50 gospels and 500 "letters" and "Acts" were to be considered scripture.
The Holy Spirit also led the church leaders to interpret and teach Old Testament scripture, oral apostolic teaching and (later) what became the New Testament.
The church taught, developed and passed down ways of worship, prayer and church life not explicitly laid out in scripture.
Did Paul write:
Have you had one person ever say to you that Scripture is the Pillar and foundation of truth?"Scripture is the pillar and foundation of truth." ????
or did he write:
"The church is the pillar and foundation of truth." ???
this rock... you are the one engaging in eisiogesis.... it is the unfounded presupposition of the Greek and the Roman who, when they read "tradition", who then pours into that word "Roman tradition" or "Greek tradition".... however, there is no difference between tradition and scripture.... tradition is that which was handed down through the apostles and was written for our edification tradition cannot bear the weight of that which Rome or the Greek wish to make it bear. it was never suited to that purpose, and the proliferation of unbiblical traditions that has resulted from the attempt to pour too much into that word is evidence of this fact.
You sure? I got a couple golden plates I found in my back yard I wanted to sell, I will give you a good price on them.
I just have to post something right quick . . . my post count is 3666 . . . .
The practice has not been lost, but details of it have.
Infant baptism is implicitly stated, yet many Christians today practice believer's baptism. That is another example of an important detail that can be lost using only scripture.
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Okay.
Not actually lost. The differences in practice come from differences in interpretation. State it's implied. I would argue that even if it's implied, it is not a requirement for salvation. I do not think God would allow an innocent child to go to hell because he was not baptized.
What better mercy than that of God?Neither do we, but the fact of the matter is we just don't know what happens to an unbaptized baby. We simply leave him/her to the mercy of God.
Not actually lost. The differences in practice come from differences in interpretation. you state it's implied. I would argue that even if it's implied, it is not a requirement for salvation. I do not think God would allow an innocent child to go to hell because he was not baptized.
You know I've asked this question a few times in other threads and nobody has ever responded. Would somebody please give me some thoughts or comments:For instance, you may lay the foundation of your home before you build the house, but does the foundation you pour determine the house you'll build, or does the house you wish to build determine the foundation you will pour?
How do I know that certain details are not required? Or how do I know that infant baptism is not required?How do you know certain details are not required?
Love,
Christina
You're dodging the question. That's not what I asked. I did not ask which would be done first, the building of the house or the laying of the foundation. I asked which determined which.The foundation must (not may) be laid first and then both scenarios are correct. Right?
You're dodging the question. That's not what I asked. I did not ask which would be done first, the building of the house or the laying of the foundation. I asked which determined which.
Is a builder just going to go out and pour a foundation and then decide how many stories, bedrooms, bathrooms, etc . . . . it will have? Foundations are determined by the structure they are to support. Foundations do not determine the structure that will be built upon it.
BTW, thanks for responding . . . .
You know I've asked this question a few times in other threads and nobody has ever responded. Would somebody please give me some thoughts or comments:For instance, you may lay the foundation of your home before you build the house, but does the foundation you pour determine the house you'll build, or does the house you wish to build determine the foundation you will pour?
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