Johnnz,
can you back up this with scripture as Ephesians 5 shows the husband to be the leader/head in the marriage?
Hi,
Bliz has made one relevant post on this. Here are some others.
There were many terms available for the NT writers to use when leadership or for someone in authority. Instead they most often chose terms from lower domestic life - slave, servant, but never ruler, or master, or lord.
Jesus was quite specific in Matthew. Matt 20:25-28
Jesus called them together and said, "You know that the rulers of the Gentiles lord it over them, and their high officials exercise authority over them. Not so with you. Instead, whoever wants to become great among you must be your servant, and whoever wants to be first must be your slave— just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many." NIV This is the pattern he gave to his disciples, his future leaders.
The Greek word for 'head' is much debated. Some see at it meaning something like our word "boss". Others understand it as source, origin. The only point I want to make here is that we cannot simply assume Paul used that word in Eph to mean boss. We at least need to be open minded about it.
Paul was an apostle. That was a prime function within the church. If you understand the cultural background for fame, recognition, status and authority, you can read Paul's letters and see how clearly he spurned all such pratices and openly assumed the lowest of postions within society. This caused him to have issues with the Corinthian church, who wanted Paul to accept their cutural, status bound criteria of honour and importance. One example. To work with one's hands was a sign if low rank and dishonour. But that is what Paul did.
If man's rulership over woman arose after the fall then that was not an integral part of the way God's kingdom was to operate. Male dominance is a product of sin, not Divine design. I have commented on this in an earlier post.
We have assumed that Paul was giving general instruction to the church when he wrote those verses on Eph, and in Corinthians too. But that is a wrong assumption. a) In that society women were under men already. That was the common standard. Thus b) Paul had lived and worked with each congregation for some time. It is inconceivable that he had never mentioned the status of women while he was there, especially as we know that in his ministry (and also with Jesus), women were active with him in establishing the church.
We know that in both cities there were issues of false doctrine and improper behaviour that needed addressing. Paul would then be giving specific instruction with a specific set of circumstances in mind to put some structure around what was going on. Read 1&2 Timothy (& Titus) and note the issues Paul highlighted to Timothy about certain aspects of church life in Ephesians. You can see better then what Paul may have been facing when he wrote Ephesians.
These are some of my reasons. For a biblical position to be acceptable it must be consistent with other scriptures and essential doctrines. I find the case for male domination lacks the consistency that I require, in that it simply ignores servanthood as a concept within marriage, it is built on a misunderstanding of pre and post fall scriptures, there are alternative intepretations of the scriptures used, and therefore humility and openmindedness are essential. The background cultural factors have only come to light from quite recent biblical scholarship and they give very different prespectives on many NT texts.
That's some of my reasons. Apart from these, I am aware of my own self interest sufficiently to be most apprehensive about having any power of veto over my wife's views. It would be highly dangerous for God to give me, and other men, that power over their wives. Also, When I treat any woman with dignity and as an equal image bearer of God I have a much more productive and enriching relationship with her.
May your pondering be permeated by God's Spirit.
John
NZ