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Why do you ignore our current position spoken about in the passage you quoted? I bolded and colored in blue for you so you know exactly what I'm talking about.The conclusion of the scripture [inclusive of law] seems exceptionally clear to me:
Galatians 3:22
But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
If all still continue in the same state, what was Jesus saying changed? Being born again is change. You contend we're still the same. What does Paul say - new man? Isn't this change of state of being? Are you confused about what really has taken place by some physical manifestations or a personal problem (thorn in the flesh)?There is no reason to discount either statement of fact. Not making that same conclusion with regards to being concluded under sin would be lying against both fact and scripture statement of such a fact in favor of discounting that and only taking the second portion as fact.
The sins of the believer have already been judged.Doesn't compute nor produce a truthful statement.
Doesn't mean sins won't be judged either. The notion that is promoted with many is that by (whatever measure is used, justification, grace, forgiveness, repentance, etc) they conclude that it is 'just-as-if-I've-never sinned' and that is simply not a truthful conclusion.
Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.
So my question is - is John saying we live a lifestyle of sin? I couldn't agree to that. Verse 10 says if we sin not if we practice sin as a lifestyle. It is also in the passed tense.There is no understanding that can honestly make us conclude we 'have' (present tense) no sin. The instant we make that conclusion we are not truthful/honest to the measure of 1 John 1:8 and therefore lying and not in TRUTH.
Yes our body will reap the consequences of its sin as already promised the sentence will be carried out.Which equation means sin without judgment. I find that to be a rather hollow conclusion, particular measured with the fact that we do reap what we sow regardless of our begging to God after the fact. To say otherwise is to equate sin without consequences, which is where many end up landing.
Yes He did. What thoughts is Jesus talking about? Is it the temptations placed on us or is the thoughts we have possession of?Jesus was pretty clear that the thought of sin is sin, even if not externalized, that it is evil and that it is defiling. What would you propose to avoid that fact set? And secondly, why would we say otherwise if those fact sets are facts?
I tire of you insisting that temptations are our thoughts.I find little use for lying or hypocrisy about these matters as there is even deeper depths of 'issues' that we are also clearly warned of, as in being turned into a lying hypocrite.
Your combination of facts is an effort to prove something not intended by their author. This is commonly referred to as twisting the Scripture.It might seem that honesty is the forthright approach, first and foremost.
Sin without consequences or judgment is not a presentation of scripture that I'm aware of. There is an avalanche of scripture making the exact opposite conclusion.
That still does not equate to sin without consequence or sin without judgment.
Indeed it would seem so. The box canyon on these matters is purposefully designed to instill close examinations of the facts.
The same man (Paul) who said sin not also claimed to be the chief of sinners after salvation, so again, there is a purposefully set dichotomy in play.
Then by your understanding there is not such thing as redemptive salvation. John isn't saying one never sins if they've been redeemed. His intention is the practice of sin as a lifestyle. Read the whole book for overall context.That conclusion would not appear sufficient to run the gauntlet of understandings either:
1 John 3:
6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.
So is that verse talking about what the law does in us or in Jesus? Again read the whole book for context. I think the chapter might suffice in this case, though.I fully accept the conclusion of scripture and the correct and rightful condemnation of sin by either law or grace, just as Paul showed us as how Jesus Measures, here for example:
Romans 8:3
For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
Sin isn't attached to the Christian.That conclusion is the conclusion of Jesus regarding sin in the flesh. There are no excuses available to dodge that quite rightful conclusion of condemnation to sin. We certainly aren't going to be sliding into home plate laden with same attached to us and claiming otherwise when His positional statement is already on record.
No you've misused proof texts divorced from context dessiring to prove a false fact.
There is no use lying about having sin. About the fact that evil thoughts being evil and defiling us. About sin being condemned. About sin having consequences.
These are Rock Solid scriptural facts. No 'truthful' dodging is available. Falling headlong into being made into a lying hypocrite is NOT a credible solution.
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