In Deuteronomy 30:11-14, God said that His Law is not too difficult for His people to obey, and I believe Him, do you?
If you want to get right down to the nitty-and-gritty", please tell to whom was the "Law" addressed to?
The Law does not impute righteousness primarily because it was never given for that purpose in the first place, so when it does what it was given to do and does not do what it was not given to do, then that can hardly be considered to be a flaw.
In Deut. 4:13, we read:
"And he declared unto you his covenant, which he commanded you to perform, even ten commandments; and he wrote them upon two tables of stone."
First off, in this verse we read that both the Decalogue and the Torah" are considered as one. Or do you believe that Moses went up on Mt. Sinai twice, one for the Decalogue and once more for the Torah.
Secondly, what we read in the New Testament, must agree with the Old Testament. In fact, the New Testament word where we get "righteous" comes from the Old Testament word.
This word draws directly from the Hebrew word “tsadag” (tsaw-dak). Which is rendered in the OT as “justify”, “righteous”, “just”, “justice”, “cleansed”, “cleanse ourselves”, “righteousness”. Matter of fact, we are told:
"If there be a controversy between men, and they come unto judgment, that the judges may judge them; then they shall justify the righteous, and condemn the wicked.” –Deut. 25:1 (KJV)
Judges can be influenced, bought, etc. However, God cannot.
“for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.” –Gal. 2:21 (KJV) The Apostle Paul teaches us that the “Law” is “holy,” “just,” and “good.” (cf. Rom. 7:12) And it is, but the “Law” has a flaw, a fault:
“For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.” –Heb. 8:7 (KJV)
The Law had promises for everything. If you sinned, the Law made provision for atonement. If you committed a crime, the Law had a provision for punishment. If you contracted Leprosy, the Law had a provision for that. If you wanted to convert to Judaism, the Law had a provision for that. But the one thing the Law absolutely could not do was to pronounce the sinner “righteous.” “For if righteousness came by the Law, then Christ died in vain.
In the Old Testament, the name which the Messiah was foretold was:
“The Lord our Righteousness” (cf. Jer. 23:6). Daniel said that he should come here to
“make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness,” –Dan. 9:24 (KJV
The prophet Isaiah said:[
“Surely, shall one say, in the LORD have I righteousness and strength: even to him shall men come; and all that are incensed against him shall be ashamed. In the LORD shall all the seed of Israel be justified, and shall glory.” –Isa. 45:24-25 (KJV)
And speaking of the redeemed, he says:
“I will greatly rejoice in the LORD, my soul shall be joyful in my God; for he hath clothed me with the garments of salvation, he hath covered me with the robe of righteousness,” –Isa. 61:10 (KJV)
Being as since Christ is called “The Lord our Righteousness”, this indicates our righteousness must lie in something besides ourselves. The other point of the Law is that it demands a perfect obedience. Thus James states:
“For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.” –Jas. 2:10 (KJV)
Strongly opposed to the doctrine that after salvation, works have real merit, is this verse:[
“whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.” –Gal. 5:4 (KJV)
In
Romans 4:6-8, we read:
“Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
Here we see two things; God imputing righteousness, and God not imputing sins. These two things are never separate. Unto whom God imputes not sin, He imputes righteousness; likewise, unto whom He imputes righteousness, He imputes not sin. Now we may ask this question: Whose righteousness is it that God imputes, reckons, places to the account of the one who believes?
The answer quite simply is, that righteousness which was wrought out by our Surety, that obedience to the Law which was rendered by our Savior: “the righteousness of God and our Savior Jesus Christ” (cf. 2 Pet. 1:1). This righteousness was not only unto all, but “unto all that believe”. (cf. Rom. 3:22)
It is called “the righteousness of God” because it was the righteousness of the God-man Mediator, just as in Acts 20:28 his blood is called the blood of God.
When we have a character trait, then we will express it through our actions, so when God imputed His righteousness to us and declares us to be righteous, He is also declaring us to be someone who expresses His righteousness through our actions in obedience to His instructions for how to do that found in His Law.
And again, can you name one person, other than our Lord, who was/is able to do everything contained therein?
No, and you wont!
In other words, we have not received the righteousness of God in order to hide it under a bushel, but in order to let it shine through our obedience. The problem that God found with the the first covenant was not with His righteousness or with His instructions for how to express His righteousness, but rather God found fault with the people for not obeying the covenant because of the hardness of their hearts.
That isn't what Paul said.
"Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound." -Rom. 5:20 (KJV)
You still wrong. Even though "the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good", man even at their best attempts, could not do all that the Law required. Period.
When Jesus took all 613 "Laws" and boiled them down into two:
"Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind. This is the first and great commandment. And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets." Mt. 22:37-40 (KJV)
And sadly, we can't even do these two things today. Let alone the 5000 years prior to the Advent of Christ.
The point is, the Law/Decalogue was always considered the first covenant. That "covenant" is now done away. We are under a new covenant, established on better promises.
Sorry, we'll just have to disagree.
God Bless
Till all are one.
