We Are Saved By Works

JM

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We are saved by works - the works of Christ alone.

Christ entered into covenant with God the Father to, "to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him." Christ lived the life we could not and that righteousness was imputed to us, Christ then died for our sins to remove the punish for sin.
 
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TheSeabass

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Works of man play no role in the salvation process. You are confusing cause and effect. Faith produces works as a fruit not as a cause. We are justified in our claim of faith when we have the fruit of works. That is what James is teaching.
Man's obedience definitely plays a role in his salvation:
Hebrews 5:9
2 Thessalonians 1:8


1 Jn 3:10 whosoever continues to not do righteousness continues to not be of God. No verse teaches man is saved by doing nothing, then does something after he is saved.
 
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Soyeong

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The average evangelical sees the New Covenant as a lowered the bar of the law of God. He sees the OT God as a stickler for the rules, but the nice, gentle Jesus of the NT lets sin slide because He's a lot less uptight. The reality is that God has not lowered the standard. Not one bit.

We are not saved in the manner that most people imagine. We are saved by works - the works of Christ.

“Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them." Mathew 5:17

The only way that God can be true to both His justice and His mercy is that, in Christ, He lived the life we should have lived and died the death we should have died. His justice was poured out on the Son in order for His mercy to be poured out upon us.

According to Titus 2:11-14, our savlation involves being trained by grace to do what God has revealed to be godly, righteous, and good, and trained to renounce doing what God has revealed to be ungodly and sinful, which is essentially what the law was given to instruct us how to do (Romans 7:12), so our salvation certainly involves doing good works, but we are not saved by doing good works, rather we are save by a faith that leads us to do good works. God's plan was not to lower His righteous standard, but rather it was to send His Son to redeem us from all lawlessness so that we might be trained to meet the righteous requirement of the law (Romans 8:3-4). According to Ephesians 2:8-10, we have been saved by grace through faith, not by doing what God has revealed in his law to be good works, but rather we are made new creations for the purpose of doing these good works by grace through faith.
 
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DeaconDean

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Man's obedience definitely plays a role in his salvation:
Hebrews 5:9
2 Thessalonians 1:8


1 Jn 3:10 whosoever continues to not do righteousness continues to not be of God. No verse teaches man is saved by doing nothing, then does something after he is saved.

Tell me what works, what obedience did the thief on the cross render?

In fact, the only person who ever was completely obedient was the Lord Jesus Christ.

"But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:" -Phil. 2:7-9 (KJV)

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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TheSeabass

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Tell me what works, what obedience did the thief on the cross render?

In fact, the only person who ever was completely obedient was the Lord Jesus Christ.

"But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:" -Phil. 2:7-9 (KJV)

God Bless

Till all are one.

The thief is not an example of how one is saved under Christ's NT gospel. The thief was promised paradise before Christ died and His NT gospel came into effect Hebrews 9:16-17. For all we know the thief may have earlier in his life been a disciple of Christ yet later fell away into a life of crime.

Many, as Abraham, in the bible were obedient to God therefore reckoned righteous. None, other than Christ, was perfect in their obedience but God was not looking for perfect, flawless sinlessness from men as Abraham but a faithful obedience...which Abraham had Hebrews 11:8;17
 
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DeaconDean

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The thief is not an example of how one is saved under Christ's NT gospel. The thief was promised paradise before Christ died and His NT gospel came into effect Hebrews 9:16-17. For all we know the thief may have earlier in his life been a disciple of Christ yet later fell away into a life of crime.

Many, as Abraham, in the bible were obedient to God therefore reckoned righteous. None, other than Christ, was perfect in their obedience but God was not looking for perfect, flawless sinlessness from men as Abraham but a faithful obedience...which Abraham had Hebrews 11:8;17

Your arguments are useless.

You cannot prove the thief was saved prior to the cross, then fell away.

And it does not matter whether it was before Christ died, or after, we have the scriptures record of the promise Christ made.

So here again, where was his obedience.

As far as Abraham is concerned, he wasn't sinless, only "righteous".

Read Genesis 19-20.

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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DeaconDean

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Many, as Abraham, in the bible were obedient to God therefore reckoned righteous. None, other than Christ, was perfect in their obedience but God was not looking for perfect, flawless sinlessness from men as Abraham but a faithful obedience...which Abraham had Hebrews 11:8;17

Let's examine what you said here.

Correct, many were obedient and reckoned righteous.

However, many also sinned numerous times after being declared "righteous". Thank God for "grace".

but a faithful obedience...which Abraham had Hebrews 11:8;17

Let's look at your proof text.

"By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went...By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son," -Heb. 11:8,17 (KJV)

What does the two passages of scripture say?

The first two words of both say it: "By faith".

These passages speak of Abraham's faith not his obedience.

"Hebrews 11:8

By faith, Abraham, when he was called
The Alexandrian copy and the Vulgate Latin version read, "by faith he who was called Abraham"; but this call is not to be understood of his name; for though his first name Abram might be given him, in the faith of his being a great man, and his second name Abraham, when he himself was a believer; yet this change was made some years after the call referred to; which is that in ( Genesis 12:1 ) when he was called out of his own country, kindred, and father's house; which was an emblem of the call of God's people out from among the men of the world, and from their friends, relations, and acquaintance, and even out of themselves; and as Abraham was called from "Ur" of the Chaldees, so they from darkness, bondage, idolatry, and communion with wicked men; that, as he, they might not perish with idolaters, being chosen vessels, and for whom God has peculiar blessings in store: and so the grace of God is seen in calling them, without any respect to their deserts, as in calling Abraham: and the care and goodness of God may be observed, in raising up fit instruments to propagate his cause and interest."

Source

"Hebrews 11:17

By faith Abraham, when he was tried,
&c.] Or tempted; that is, by God, ( Genesis 22:1 ) . This temptation or trial respects the command given by God to Abraham, to offer up his son Isaac; which lays no foundation for a charge against God, either of sin or cruelty; for God's will is the rule of justice and goodness, and whatever he requires is just and good; and though his creatures are bound by the laws he prescribes them, he himself is not: besides, he is the Lord of life, the giver and preserver of it; and he has a right to dispose of it, and to take it away, when, and by what means, and instruments, he thinks fit; to which may be added, that the secret will of God was not that Isaac should die, but a command was given to Abraham to offer him up, for the trial of his faith and love; this was a temptation of probation, not of seduction, or to sin, as are the temptations of Satan; for God tempts no man with sin. The Jews speak F24 of ten temptations, with which Abraham was tried, and in all which he stood; and say, that this of the binding of Isaac was the tenth and last."

Source

You miss what this great chapter is all about. Just looking at it, it is a role call of great men of faith!

Here I quote:

"The order of thought followed by the apostle in Hebrews 11 was ably and helpfully set
forth by an early Puritan: "The parts of this whole chapter are two: 1. a general description of faith: verses 1 to 4. 2. An illustration or declaration of that description, by a large rehearsal of manifold examples of ancient and worthy men in the Old Testament: verses 4 to 40. The description of faith consists of three actions or effects of faith, set down in three several verses. The first effect is that faith makes things which are not (but only are hoped for), after a sort, to subsist and to be present with the believer: verse 1. The second effect is that faith makes a believer approved of God: verse 2. The third effect is that faith makes a man understand and believe things incredible to sense and reason" (Win. Perkins, 1595)."

Arthur W. Pink, Chapter 56, The Excellency of Faith, Heb. 11: 1-3, p 405

He also writes:

"Nowhere else in the Bible do we find such a lengthy and complete description of the life of faith. But here a whole chapter, the longest in the Epistle, is devoted to it. The reason for this is not far to seek. Brought up in a system with an elaborate ritual, whose worship was primarily a matter of outward symbols and ceremonies; tempted as few ever have been to walk by sight, there was a special and most pressing need for a clear and detailed analysis and description of what it means to “walk by faith.”

Source

Every commentary are in one accord, this chapter is all about the great men of faith. It shows their faith.

This is a chapter about faith.

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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TheSeabass

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Let's examine what you said here.

Correct, many were obedient and reckoned righteous.

However, many also sinned numerous times after being declared "righteous". Thank God for "grace".

Yes, but they were repent. Those OT laws allowed the to offer various sacrifices for their sins they committed.

Lk 1:6 "And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless."

How could John's parents be "righteous" "blameless" when they committed various sins? Because they "walked in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord" thereby receiving forgiveness of their sins.

DeaconDean said:
Let's look at your proof text.

"By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went...By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son," -Heb. 11:8,17 (KJV)

What does the two passages of scripture say?

The first two words of both say it: "By faith".

These passages speak of Abraham's faith not his obedience.

Wow, just wow. You refuse to see that Abraham's faith INCLUDED obedience?

By FAITH Abraham...OBEYED
By FAITH Abraham..OFFERED UP

Had Abrahams' faith been void of these obedient works he never would have left he home in Genesis 12:1-4 and Issac never would have been born. As a matter of fact God would never have chosen Abraham to give those promises to if Abraham would have been disobedient. God chose Abraham because God knew that he and his descendants "would keep the way of the Lord" per Genesis 18:19. Were they perfect in keeping the way of the Lord? No, but they were obedient enough that the Lord was able to fulfill His will through them.

DeaconDean said:
"Hebrews 11:8

By faith, Abraham, when he was called
The Alexandrian copy and the Vulgate Latin version read, "by faith he who was called Abraham"; but this call is not to be understood of his name; for though his first name Abram might be given him, in the faith of his being a great man, and his second name Abraham, when he himself was a believer; yet this change was made some years after the call referred to; which is that in ( Genesis 12:1 ) when he was called out of his own country, kindred, and father's house; which was an emblem of the call of God's people out from among the men of the world, and from their friends, relations, and acquaintance, and even out of themselves; and as Abraham was called from "Ur" of the Chaldees, so they from darkness, bondage, idolatry, and communion with wicked men; that, as he, they might not perish with idolaters, being chosen vessels, and for whom God has peculiar blessings in store: and so the grace of God is seen in calling them, without any respect to their deserts, as in calling Abraham: and the care and goodness of God may be observed, in raising up fit instruments to propagate his cause and interest."

What if Abraham's faith did not cause him to move away? He would have had a dead faith only and never reckoned righteous, never been justified.

Psalms 119:172 says all of God's commandments are righteousness. Therefore God's command to Abraham to move was righteousness. How could Abraham ever be reckoned righteous if he disobeyed, did UNrighteousness in not moving as the Lord told him? It would not have been possible. But is was his obedient faith in doing God's righteousness in moving that led to his being reckoned righteous.


DeaconDean said:
Source

"Hebrews 11:17

By faith Abraham, when he was tried,
&c.] Or tempted; that is, by God, ( Genesis 22:1 ) . This temptation or trial respects the command given by God to Abraham, to offer up his son Isaac; which lays no foundation for a charge against God, either of sin or cruelty; for God's will is the rule of justice and goodness, and whatever he requires is just and good; and though his creatures are bound by the laws he prescribes them, he himself is not: besides, he is the Lord of life, the giver and preserver of it; and he has a right to dispose of it, and to take it away, when, and by what means, and instruments, he thinks fit; to which may be added, that the secret will of God was not that Isaac should die, but a command was given to Abraham to offer him up, for the trial of his faith and love; this was a temptation of probation, not of seduction, or to sin, as are the temptations of Satan; for God tempts no man with sin. The Jews speak F24 of ten temptations, with which Abraham was tried, and in all which he stood; and say, that this of the binding of Isaac was the tenth and last."

Source

You miss what this great chapter is all about. Just looking at it, it is a role call of great men of faith!

Here I quote:

"The order of thought followed by the apostle in Hebrews 11 was ably and helpfully set
forth by an early Puritan: "The parts of this whole chapter are two: 1. a general description of faith: verses 1 to 4. 2. An illustration or declaration of that description, by a large rehearsal of manifold examples of ancient and worthy men in the Old Testament: verses 4 to 40. The description of faith consists of three actions or effects of faith, set down in three several verses. The first effect is that faith makes things which are not (but only are hoped for), after a sort, to subsist and to be present with the believer: verse 1. The second effect is that faith makes a believer approved of God: verse 2. The third effect is that faith makes a man understand and believe things incredible to sense and reason" (Win. Perkins, 1595)."

Arthur W. Pink, Chapter 56, The Excellency of Faith, Heb. 11: 1-3, p 405

He also writes:

"Nowhere else in the Bible do we find such a lengthy and complete description of the life of faith. But here a whole chapter, the longest in the Epistle, is devoted to it. The reason for this is not far to seek. Brought up in a system with an elaborate ritual, whose worship was primarily a matter of outward symbols and ceremonies; tempted as few ever have been to walk by sight, there was a special and most pressing need for a clear and detailed analysis and description of what it means to “walk by faith.”

Source

Every commentary are in one accord, this chapter is all about the great men of faith. It shows their faith.

This is a chapter about faith.

God Bless

Till all are one.

How does this disprove my position???

If Abraham had faith only, then he would not have done the obedient works of moving or offering Issac so how could he ever be reckoned righteous and justified while he remained rebellious, defiant, disobedient to the Lord's will?
 
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TaylorSexton

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Those OT laws allowed the to offer various sacrifices for their sins they committed.

Except there was one problem...

"It is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins" (Heb. 10:4).
 
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DeaconDean

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Yes, but they were repent. Those OT laws allowed the to offer various sacrifices for their sins they committed.

Lk 1:6 "And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless."

How could John's parents be "righteous" "blameless" when they committed various sins? Because they "walked in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord" thereby receiving forgiveness of their sins.



Wow, just wow. You refuse to see that Abraham's faith INCLUDED obedience?

By FAITH Abraham...OBEYED
By FAITH Abraham..OFFERED UP

Had Abrahams' faith been void of these obedient works he never would have left he home in Genesis 12:1-4 and Issac never would have been born. As a matter of fact God would never have chosen Abraham to give those promises to if Abraham would have been disobedient. God chose Abraham because God knew that he and his descendants "would keep the way of the Lord" per Genesis 18:19. Were they perfect in keeping the way of the Lord? No, but they were obedient enough that the Lord was able to fulfill His will through them.



What if Abraham's faith did not cause him to move away? He would have had a dead faith only and never reckoned righteous, never been justified.

Psalms 119:172 says all of God's commandments are righteousness. Therefore God's command to Abraham to move was righteousness. How could Abraham ever be reckoned righteous if he disobeyed, did UNrighteousness in not moving as the Lord told him? It would not have been possible. But is was his obedient faith in doing God's righteousness in moving that led to his being reckoned righteous.




How does this disprove my position???

If Abraham had faith only, then he would not have done the obedient works of moving or offering Issac so how could he ever be reckoned righteous and justified while he remained rebellious, defiant, disobedient to the Lord's will?

You are a funny person.

So intent on breaking the Calvinist position that everything else is forsaken.

Romans 4 tells us:

"What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness." -Rom. 4: 1-3 (KJV)

Abraham was counted as "righteous" because of his faith, not his "works".

IF his works made him "righteous", he would have something to boast about that nobody else did.

Secondly, the "Torah" did not exist in Abraham's lifetime, Galatians 3:17 tells us that the Law came some 430 years later.

AS far as Lk. 1:6 is concerned, we also read:

"Luke 1:6

And they were both righteous before God
Not as the Pharisees, only righteous before men, but in the sight of God, who sees the heart, and whose judgment is according to truth; and therefore were not justified by the deeds of the law; for by them no man can be justified in the sight of God; but were made righteous through the righteousness of Christ, by which the saints were made righteous before the coming of Christ, as those after it: see ( Acts 15:11 ) ( Revelation 13:8 ) .

Walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord:
this was not the matter of their righteousness before God, but the evidence of it before men: "by the commandments" are meant, all those that are of a moral nature, which regarded their duty to God and man, and which are comprehended in love to both; and by "the ordinances of the Lord", are intended the injunctions and institutions of the ceremonial law, which is called the law of commandments, contained in ordinances, which, though now abolished, were then in force: and it was right and commendable in them to observe them, who, by their "walking" in them, showed they loved them, both one and the other; esteemed them, concerning all things to be right; and had respect to them all, and observed them, and took pleasure in walking in them, which, by the grace of God, they continued to do;

blameless;
not that they were without sin, as none are; and it appears from this chapter that Zacharias was not, see ( Luke 1:20 ) but they were so in the sight of God; as they were justified by the righteousness of Christ, so they were without fault before the throne, and unreproveable before God; and as to their moral and religious character and conduct before men, they did not indulge themselves in any known sin, but lived in all good conscience among men: nor were they remiss and negligent in the discharge of duty: they were not guilty of any notorious breach of the law of God, or of any remarkable negligence in the business of religious observances: and though they might observe enough in them to charge themselves with, and to humble themselves before God and men; yet so strict were they, in their lives and conversations, that those who were the most intimately acquainted with them, had nothing very material to blame them for."

Source

But according t you and your proof text, they found righteousness through the law. Even though it say also says as pointed out above that Gal. 3:11 no man is justified in the sight of God by the law.

And your proof text also corrects Paul who said that if righteousness came by the law, Christ died in vain. (cf Gal. 2:21)

Which also shows us that the scripture contains an error. And if the scripture is in error, then it's worthless. We might as well pick up a copy of Moby Dick and use it.

Sorry, but your wrong.

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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DeaconDean

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Wow, just wow. You refuse to see that Abraham's faith INCLUDED obedience?

Never once did I say that. I am, rather taking the position opposite yours that works or even obedience plays no part or is even a condition in our salvation. As you said here:

"And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;" -Heb. 5:9

"In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ:" -2 Thess. 1:8

In the first place, name one person who has rendered perfect obedience that God/Jesus requires.

I can show from scriptures that your proof text (Heb. 5:9) disqualifies at least two "apostles".

Regarding Hebrews 5:9, we read:

"Christ's Purity—He Learned Obedience

But there is one last foundation for our eternal salvation. Christ became the source of eternal salvation, not only because of his dignity and eternity, but also because of his purity. And not just the purity that he brought to his ministry as the Son of God, but purity that he had to forge in the furnace of suffering.


If you ask, Did his divine dignity and his priestly eternity give him automatic purity? the answer is No. It was not automatic. Verse 8 says, "Although He was a Son, He learned obedience from the things which He suffered." This does not mean he moved from being disobedient to being obedient. It means he moved from being untested to being tested and proven. He moved from obeying without any suffering to obeying through unspeakable suffering. It means that the gold of his natural purity was put in the crucible and melted down with white-hot pain, so that he could learn from experience what suffering is and prove that his purity would persevere.

And did this come automatically? No. Verse 7 says that it was prayed for and begged for and cried out for and wept for with tears. This was no fake test of Christ's purity. Everything in the universe hung on this test.

Was it brief? Some take verse 7 to refer only to the battle in Gethsemane when he sweat drops of blood and pleaded with God. I don't think so. Notice the word "days" in verse 7—"In the days of His flesh." Not just a night or a day, but during all the "days of his humanity" he was wrestling and praying and begging and crying out and weeping. It was not brief. It was a lifetime of warfare against sin.

And when verse 7b says that he was praying and crying "to the One able to save Him from death," does that mean that he was mainly praying for deliverance from physical death? Was that the main aim of his praying in the days of his flesh? I don't think so, because verse 7 says "he was heard." I think that means God gave him what he asked for, and verse 8 describes the effect of that answered prayer: he learned obedience. Jesus was praying for obedience—for persevering purity.

In other words, Jesus knew that there was a death worse than death. Much worse. Physical death is bad enough and he desired that there be another way to do the Father's will than to die on the cross. But far more horrible than dying on the cross was the impurity of unbelief and disobedience. That was the great and horrible threat. So he prayed all his life against that, and he was heard by his Father and, instead of caving in to sin, he learned obedience from what he suffered.

He became a source of eternal salvation because of his dignity as the Son of God and his eternity in the priesthood of Melchizedek and his purity in the crucible of incredible suffering.

Do You Have This Eternal Salvation?


Which leaves one last question: Do you have this eternal salvation? Not everyone does. Verse 9 tells us who does: "And having been made perfect, He became to all those who obey Him the source of eternal salvation." Those who are obeying Christ have the eternal salvation that he obtained for us. Are you obeying Christ? Or are you living in disobedience to his will?

One thing is very clear from Hebrews: the will of Christ that has to be obeyed is first and foremost the command to trust him, to hold fast to our hope (3:6), to guard against a heart of unbelief (3:12), to hold fast to our confession (4:14), and to draw near to Christ for help (4:16). In other words, the first and main act of obedience is to believe in the promises of God (3:18–19) and to hope in him. All other obedience, according to Hebrews, is the fruit of this first and root act of obedience (10:34; 11:8, 24–26; 13:5–6, 13–14). So daily acts of practical obedience are the evidence of this first obedient act of saving faith.

Source


In the second place, I love it when people use eschatological passages to refer to present day Christians.

In the third place, I am also forced to agree with Martin Luther when he wrote:

"In the first place it is flatly against St. Paul and all the rest of Scripture in ascribing justification to works 2:24). It says that Abraham was justified by his works when he offered his son Isaac (2:20); Though in Romans 4:22-22 St. Paul teaches to the contrary that Abraham was justified apart from works, by his faith alone, before he had offered his son, and proves it by Moses in Genesis 15:6. Although it would be possible to "save" the epistle by a gloss giving a correct explanation of justification here ascribed to works, it is impossible to deny that it does refer to Moses' words in Genesis 15 (which speaks not of Abraham's works but of his faith, just as Paul makes plain in Romans 4) to Abraham's works."

Source

Have you ever studies what it means to "righteous" and "justified"?

"This word draws directly from the Hebrew word “tsadag” (tsaw-dak). Which is rendered in the OT as “justify”, “righteous”, “just”, “justice”, “cleansed”, “cleanse ourselves”, “righteousness”.

Looking at the word in the LXX, it is a “forensic” term. Yet in the LXX, the predominate usage does not carry a negative meaning as some Greek usage: (w QemistokleeV, en toisi agwsi oi proexanistamenoi rapizontai. o de apoluomenoV efh oi de ge egkataleipomenoi ou stefanountai.) but is constantly used in the most positive sense of “to pronounce righteous,” “to justify”, “to vindicate”. The forensic element is even stronger in the Masoretic text in that the Masoretic Isa. 42:25 is rendered as they find righteousness with Yahweh, and in the LXX it is rendered that they are declared righteous by him (apo kuriou dikaiw qhsoutai).

A fact that most seen to overlook at are the differences between what Paul is quoting from, and what James quotes, rather, bases their statements on. Paul uses Gen. 15:6 as his basis in Romans 4, and James uses Gen. 22:1-19 for his basis. Abraham was seventy-five years old when he believed God in Genesis 15. However, Abraham was 100 years old when Isaac was born. (cf. Gen. 22:6) Tradition has it that Isaac was around twenty-five when Abraham took him to the mountain for the sacrifice. If the Catholics and Arminians are correct, then it logically means that Abraham had to wait fifty years in order to actually be justified! No! We merely point out that the offering of his son, gave evidence to Abraham’s faith in God.

Professing to be a Christian when one is not may secure a standing before men, it may improve his moral and social prestige, he may be able to join a church, and help promote his commercial interests, but can it save him? What is the use to fein to be charitable when works of charity are withheld? What good does it bring to calling oneself a Christian when empty stomachs are met with good words? How can a person claim to be a Christian and clothe the naked by good wishes? What does it profit to profess to be a believer when there is no true piety?

Neither can a person be saved by a mere empty hollow confession of the Gospel. To say that I am a Christian and am unable to appeal to any good works and spiritual fruits as proof of it, profits neither the person nor those who listen. Without the essential element of “faith worketh by love” (cf. Gal. 5:6), no matter how much reading or studying, no amount of head knowledge, no amount of preaching and teaching one can do, they are no more than “sounding brass and tinkling symbol.” Without love, those professors will be the ones pleading their works but will be told: “Depart, I never knew ye.”

So…we conclude that “works,” as far as justification is concerned, plays no part. We are indeed justified by faith alone, in Christ alone.

Martin Luther wrote in his preface to James and Jude: “James does nothing more than drive a man to the Law and its works.” And this is apparent in some faiths teachings. However, Luther also admits that James wanted to guard against those who relied on faith exclusively but wasn’t quite up to the task.

During the first century, it is commonly held that James was the bishop of the church in Jerusalem. And Paul was a missionary. History dictates that during the early church, two viewpoints developed early on. Paul is well known for his battles with “legalists.” They were the type who said faith in God was correct, but what was also required was a submission to the “Law.”

Luther also was quick to point out that James called the “Law” a “perfect law of liberty.” (cf. Jas. 1:25) Paul viewed it as a Law that brings slavery, (Gal. 5:3) wrath, (Rom. 4:15) sin, (Rom. 7:7) and death (Rom. 7:10).

When men are turned away from their own self-efforts, the next step is to run in the complete opposite direction. If they cannot trust in their own self-righteousness, if they cannot be justified by their own works, then it is just a minor shift to reject works of any kind, and there is no such thing as ungodly living or ungodly practice. This is the door which leads down the path to antinomianism. They turn the grace of God into lasciviousness. (Jude 1:4) And this is very apparent in what it was spreading during the early church.

It has been argued that Paul and James are not contradictory, but rather, complimentary. This can be seen by the statements by these men in that Paul says you are justified by faith, verse James’ teaching that you are justified by works and not by faith alone. Arthur W. Pink wrote:

“Unless the subject and scope of James’ Epistle be clearly seen, the apprehension of many of its statements can only issue in God-dishonoring, grace-repudiating, soul-destroying error. To this portion of the Word of God, more than any other, have legalists appealed in their opposition to the grand truth of justification by grace, through faith, without works. To the declarations of this Epistle have they turned to find support for their Christ-insulting, man-exalting, Gospel-repudiating error of justification by human works. Merit-mongers of all descriptions cite James 2 for the purpose of setting aside all that is taught elsewhere in Scripture on the subject of justification. Romanists, and their half-brothers the Arminians, quote "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only" (v. 24), and suppose that ends all argument.”

Three times in Romans 4, the preposition “eiV” (ice) is used. In verse 5: “his faith is counted “eiV = for” righteousness.” In verse 9: “faith was reckoned to him “eiV = for” righteousness. In verse 22: “it was imputed to him “eiV = for” righteousness.” In each of these verses, the preposition “eiV” never means “in the stead of”, but signifies “towards, in order to, with a view to”, and in rare circumstances, it can mean “because of.” It has a uniform usage as “into” or “unto.” The clearest meaning in this passage of scriptures is found in verse 10: “with the heart man believeth unto “eiV” righteousness”: that the believing heart reaches out towards and lays hold of Christ Himself. This passage (cf. Rom. 10:10) may help us to understand what justification by faith is, for it shows that righteousness there comes to us when we embrace God’s goodness offered to us in the Gospel. We are then, for this reason, made just: because we believe that God’s propitious to us through Christ. (Calvin)

The Holy Spirit meant what He related to the Apostles as they wrote the New Testament. And some words were chosen with precision. Another preposition that merits note is “anti.” “Anti” as used in the Greek means: “over against; hence, in correspondence to, answering to, in place of, in retribution or return for, in consideration of, on account of.” This is important as it helps us make our point. It is important in that righteousness is never imputed to us “on account of” faith. Righteousness is never imputed to us “because of” faith. Righteousness is never imputed to us “in consideration of” faith. Righteousness is never imputed to us “in correspondence to” faith. Righteousness is never imputed to us “in answering to” faith. And most importantly, righteousness is never imputed to us “in place of” faith or perfect obedience.

Some may argue that the texts agree with Darby’s position. Does it say that Abraham’s faith was account for righteousness? To answer that, we point to what King David said: “Purge me with hyssop, and I shall be clean.” Are we to believe that hyssop, a worthless shrub, has the kind of fitness to stand in the place of the sacrificial blood, and make an atonement for? It has no more fitness as faith to stand in the place of Christ’s perfect obedience, to act as our justifying righteousness, or to procure our acceptance with God.

In Genesis 15:6 we read: “And he believed in the Lord; and He counted it to him for righteousness.” Now, was it Abraham’s faith itself which was in God’s account taken for righteousness (Darby’s assumption). Or, was it the righteousness of God in Christ which Abraham’s faith laid hold of? Abraham’s faith was nothing more and nothing less than the renunciation of all virtue and strength in himself, and placing a child-like trust upon God for what He was willing and able to do. This is very far from his faith being a mere substitute for a righteousness which he lacked. Even further was God’s accepting Abraham’s faith “in place of” a perfect obedience to His Law. Rather was Abraham’s faith the acting of a soul which found its life, its hope, its all in the Lord Himself. And that is what “justifying” faith is, it is “simply the instrument by which Christ and His righteousness are received in order to justification.” It is emptiness filled with Christ’s fullness; impotency lying down upon Christ’s strength.” (J.L. Girardeau)"

The Doctrine of Justification, Restated and Reviewed, By DeaconDean

Righteous and justified go hand in hand.

"Our Greek word has its root in the Greek word “dikh”. This word means “right”, “justice”; in the NT, judicial punishment, vengeance; 2 Thes. 1:9; Jude 7; sentence of punishment, judgment, Acts 25:15; personified, the goddess of justice or vengeance, Nemesis, Paena, Acts 28:4."

Ibid

If our salvation was dependent on our "obedience" as you say, not a single one of us, the apostles included, would be saved.

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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DeaconDean

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Also, one more footnote.

In Genesis 22:8, Abraham is walking Isaac towards the mount to sacrifice.

Abraham says:

"My son, God will provide himself a lamb for a burnt offering: so they went both of them together." -Gen. 22:8 (KJV)

There 16 different names for God.

In this passage, one name for God is used here and nowhere else.

Jehovah-Jireh. (God will provide)

It is used only in Genesis 22:14 the spot where the sacrifice was to occur.

Which means, although Abraham was doing as he was told, it was his faith in God that God (Jehovah-Jireh) would provide a ram for sacrifice.

That is why Paul refers to Abraham as the father of faith. (cf. Rom. 3:27-4:25)

But, even faith cannot produce "perfect" obedience.

The great preacher Charles H. Spurgeon preached:

"Next, obedience should be exact. Even Abraham's obedience failed somewhat in this at first; for he started at once from Ur of the Chaldees, but he only went as far as Haran, and there he stayed till his father died; and then the precept came to him again, and he set off for the land which the Lord had promised to show him. If any of you have only half obeyed, I pray that you may take heed of this, and do all that the Lord commands, carefully endeavouring to keep back no part of the revenue of obedience."

Source

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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DeaconDean

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Another thought just comes to mind.

Lets say your in church, a young individual comes up and repents, asks God to save him believing on Jesus Christ.

After church is over, the young person is driving home when suddenly they are in a wreck. The young person dies.

Is he saved and going to heaven?

Or is he not going to heaven because "obedience definitely plays a role in his salvation" and he hasn't had time to provide obedience?

It is sad that some people have no assurance of their salvation unless it is reflecked in something they do.

"Finally, people often lack assurance because they have erroneously been taught that they should look to themselves and their works as the primary proof of their salvation. This is a major issue today. Robert Lightner writes:

Those who think the sinner must make Christ Lord of his life, or at least promise to do so, before he can be saved make assurance rest on the evidence of a surrendered walk. MacArthur cites this as the only way a believer can be assured of his or her salvation. ‘Genuine assurance comes from seeing the Holy Spirit’s transforming work in one’s life, not from clinging to the memory of some experience."

Source

The idea that "obedience definitely plays a role in his salvation" makes a mockery of Jesus' own words:

"He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him." -Jn. 3:36 (KJV)

And in another place, we read:

"Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?" -Mt. 19:16 (KJV)

Jesus replied:

"Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself." -Mt. 19:18-19 (KJV)

And the persons reply:

"All these things have I kept from my youth up: what lack I yet?" (vs. 20)

Apparently, this person had "obeyed".

But Jesus rebuked him saying:

"If thou wilt be perfect, go and sell that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come and follow me." (vs. 21)

Why did this person fail so miserably?

He did not have the right kind of faith!

He had obedience, but he had faith in his riches and not in God. This is evident by:

"But when the young man heard that saying, he went away sorrowful: for he had great possessions. Then said Jesus unto his disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven. And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God." (vs. 22-24)

There is another place where we read:

"So likewise ye, when ye shall have done all those things which are commanded you, say, We are unprofitable servants: we have done that which was our duty to do." -Lk. 17:10 (KJV)

As I said previously, the ultimate act of righteousness and obedience was done by the Lord Jesus Christ. Anything less, don't cut it.

Even if you were to do all that is asked of you, what good is it? According to the scripture above, nothing. You have only done what you were expected to do. Even your "obedience" would be counted as "unprofitable". And those are not my words, as provided, they are the words of our Lord Jesus Christ!

But I also don't want to be misunderstood.

Faith, also produces.

As I wrote also in my paper:

"Professing to be a Christian when one is not may secure a standing before men, it may improve his moral and social prestige, he may be able to join a church, and help promote his commercial interests, but can it save him? What is the use to fein to be charitable when works of charity are withheld? What good does it bring to calling oneself a Christian when empty stomachs are met with good words? How can a person claim to be a Christian and clothe the naked by good wishes? What does it profit to profess to be a believer when there is no true piety?

Neither can a person be saved by a mere empty hollow confession of the Gospel. To say that I am a Christian and am unable to appeal to any good works and spiritual fruits as proof of it, profits neither the person nor those who listen. Without the essential element of “faith worketh by love” (cf. Gal. 5:6), no matter how much reading or studying, no amount of head knowledge, no amount of preaching and teaching one can do, they are no more than “sounding brass and tinkling symbol.” Without love, those professors will be the ones pleading their works but will be told: “Depart, I never knew ye.”

Ibid

I thank God that my salvation is not dependent on my obedience.

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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TheSeabass

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Except there was one problem...

"It is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins" (Heb. 10:4).
There was forgiveness of sins under the OT law. Those sins were not completely remitted and forgotten but there was forgiveness of sins...Leviticus 4:31 "And he shall take away all the fat thereof, as the fat is taken away from off the sacrifice of peace offerings; and the priest shall burn it upon the altar for a sweet savour unto the LORD; and the priest shall make an atonement for him, and it shall be forgiven him."
 
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TaylorSexton

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There was forgiveness of sins under the OT law.

Yes, by virtue of Christ, the "reality" of the "shadows" which were the Old Testament sacrificial system (Heb. 10:1-4).
 
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TheSeabass

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You are a funny person.

So intent on breaking the Calvinist position that everything else is forsaken.

Romans 4 tells us:

"What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness." -Rom. 4: 1-3 (KJV)

Abraham was counted as "righteous" because of his faith, not his "works".

You refuse to see that Abraham's faith INCLUDED works. He did not have nor was justified by "faith only" James 2:21-24.


DeaconDean said:
IF his works made him "righteous", he would have something to boast about that nobody else did.

Not according to the context of Romans 4.

In Romans chapters 1-2 Paul proves that both Jew and Gentiles have sinned and therefore are under sin. And in chpt 3 Paul proves the Jews are sinners according to their own OT law given them therefore they are no better than the Gentiles.

In Chapter 4 Paul picks two men to prove to His Jewish readers in Rome that men are not jsutified by works of the OT law. At that time there was a problem for Jewish converts to Christianity to backslide to the law of Moses again. Since Paul proved Jews and Gentiles are under sin, in chpt 4 Paul picked two men one a Jew (David) and one a Gentile (Abraham) and proved that neither was justified by the OT law.

Under the OT law they did not have the blood of Christ to completely remit all sins. Therefore the only way that OT law allowed for one to stand before God completely justified was for the Jew to keep all 600+ law perfectly, sinlessly. If one were sinless then he could stand before God completely justified yet the problem was the Jew would always eventually sin.

Romans 4:1 Paul asks these Jews what did Abraham merit by his own humans effort (to the flesh)?

Romans 4:2 'Works' here refers to those works of the OT law that required one to perfectly keep all that law to be completely justified before God. If Abraham keep those OT laws sinlessly and perfectly he would have something to boast about but not before God

Romans 4:3 Instead of gaining complete justification before God by flawless law keeping Abraham was reckoned righteous by believing. Paul said NOTHING about Abraham having "belief only" nor does Genesis 15:6 say Abraham "believed only". Abraham was not perfectly sinless as the OT law required to be completely justified but he had an OBEDIENT BELIEF by which he was reckoned righteous.

Romans 4:4 The worker in this verse is the one working to be completely justified by perfect, flawless obedience to the OT law. For if he keeps the law flawlessly he would be sinless then his reward would not be of grace (sinners need grace) but something God would owe him for his flawless keeping of the OT law.


Romans 4:5 the one who "worketh not" therefore is the person who is not working to keep God's law perfectly.

We have:

2) the non worker - the one that does not obey God by flawless law keeping
3) the believer - the obedient person who sins occasionally but maintains a faithful obedience to God.

So 'worketh not" is eliminating flawless law keeping and not obedience for Abraham was an obedient man to God's will Hebrews 11:8,17. Therefore "worketh not" does not, cannot eliminate ALL works for Abraham DID DO WORKS. Those that back the man made theology of faith only are creating a contradiction within scripture when they try to force "worketh not" to eliminate all works. It is a mutually exclusive contradiction in trying to have Abraham, BOTH at the same time, to have no works when he DID DO WORKS.



DeaconDean said:
Secondly, the "Torah" did not exist in Abraham's lifetime, Galatians 3:17 tells us that the Law came some 430 years later.

Yes, Paul's point to his converted Jewish readers in Rome is that neither Gentile (Abraham) or Jew (David) was justified by the flawless works the OT law of Moses required for complete justification. Abraham committed sins therefore could not be justified under that OT law. As Paul points out Abraham was justified in UNcircumcision (v10) so he was not even under the OT law yet still justified. On the other hand, David WAS under that OT yet not justified by that law for he committed sins and was not completely sinless as that OT law required to be completely justified before God.

So if David was not justified by works of flawless law keeping ("without works" v6) that OT law required then how was he reckoned righteous? BY a faithful obedience just like the Gentile Abraham who was not under the OT law of Moses. Romans 4:7-8 who is the man God will not impute sin, whose sins are covered and iniquities forgiven? The Disobedient man? No. God forgives the obedient faithful man, the one that repents. Nowhere in scripture do we find God forgiving the disobedient impenitent man. In Abraham's case forgiveness/justification was apart from circumcision?/law of Moses.

In summary in Romans 4 we have a Jew and Gentile, one under the OT law and one not under it. Yet both were justified before God NOT by works of flawless law keeping that OT law required but by a simple obedient faith. No context anywhere in scripture does it say Abraham or David was reckoned righteous by "faith only" apart from obedience to the Lord.


DeaconDean said:
AS far as Lk. 1:6 is concerned, we also read:

"Luke 1:6

And they were both righteous before God
Not as the Pharisees, only righteous before men, but in the sight of God, who sees the heart, and whose judgment is according to truth; and therefore were not justified by the deeds of the law; for by them no man can be justified in the sight of God; but were made righteous through the righteousness of Christ, by which the saints were made righteous before the coming of Christ, as those after it: see ( Acts 15:11 ) ( Revelation 13:8 ) .

Walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord:
this was not the matter of their righteousness before God, but the evidence of it before men: "by the commandments" are meant, all those that are of a moral nature, which regarded their duty to God and man, and which are comprehended in love to both; and by "the ordinances of the Lord", are intended the injunctions and institutions of the ceremonial law, which is called the law of commandments, contained in ordinances, which, though now abolished, were then in force: and it was right and commendable in them to observe them, who, by their "walking" in them, showed they loved them, both one and the other; esteemed them, concerning all things to be right; and had respect to them all, and observed them, and took pleasure in walking in them, which, by the grace of God, they continued to do;

blameless;
not that they were without sin, as none are; and it appears from this chapter that Zacharias was not, see ( Luke 1:20 ) but they were so in the sight of God; as they were justified by the righteousness of Christ, so they were without fault before the throne, and unreproveable before God; and as to their moral and religious character and conduct before men, they did not indulge themselves in any known sin, but lived in all good conscience among men: nor were they remiss and negligent in the discharge of duty: they were not guilty of any notorious breach of the law of God, or of any remarkable negligence in the business of religious observances: and though they might observe enough in them to charge themselves with, and to humble themselves before God and men; yet so strict were they, in their lives and conversations, that those who were the most intimately acquainted with them, had nothing very material to blame them for."

Source

But according t you and your proof text, they found righteousness through the law. Even though it say also says as pointed out above that Gal. 3:11 no man is justified in the sight of God by the law.

And your proof text also corrects Paul who said that if righteousness came by the law, Christ died in vain. (cf Gal. 2:21)

Which also shows us that the scripture contains an error. And if the scripture is in error, then it's worthless. We might as well pick up a copy of Moby Dick and use it.

Sorry, but your wrong.

God Bless

Till all are one.

I did not say John's parents found righteous through the law. They were righteous due to their FAITHFUL OBEDIENCE. In Luke 1:6 the word "walking" refers to that faithful obedience as in Romans 4:12 the word "walk" refers to Abraham's obedience:

Coffman Commentary on Romans 4:12:
"Who also walk after the steps of that faith of our father Abraham ... These words mean "who have an obedient faith like Abraham." Abrahamic faith was not any such thing as faith ONLY, but it was a faith that walked after God's commandments, as pointed out under Romans 4:3; and Gentiles (or others) who would participate in the promise of salvation God gave through Abraham are here identified as those who "walk" in the steps of that faith, which is a way of saying they must have an obedient faith as did Abraham. Some of the so-called translations and modern speech renditions of the New Testament have butchered this verse by eliminating all reference to obedience.

(1) For Abraham found favor with God by faith alone, before he was circumcised (The Living Word New Testament, paraphrased).

(2) For those who have the faith of Abraham (NEB).

(3) Because they live the same life of faith (The New Testament in Today's English)
.

The word "walk" or "tread" is in the Greek New Testament, and it should be in all valid translations of the word of God; but that expression is so obviously a reference to obedience that it cannot fit into the theories of salvation by faith alone; and the conviction persists that this fact influenced some of the so-called translations. It is admitted by all that Christians are saved by the same kind of faith Abraham had, before circumcision and the law; and a further study of the steps of Abraham's faith will reveal that obedience was coupled with it, and that it was by obedient faith that Abraham was justified
."

So we have Abraham, David and John's parents who 'walked', ie, who were all reckoned righteous by a faithful obedience. Not a single one reckoned righteous by not walking, by faith alone.
 
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TheSeabass

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Never once did I say that. I am, rather taking the position opposite yours that works or even obedience plays no part or is even a condition in our salvation. As you said here:

"And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;" -Heb. 5:9

"In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ:" -2 Thess. 1:8

these verses prove that a faithful OBEDIENCE is the basis God uses to determine who will and will not be saved. in My last post, I showed how Abraham, David and John's parents all were reckoned righteous by a faithful obedience, people who "walked" according to the Lord's will.

DeaconDean said:
In the first place, name one person who has rendered perfect obedience that God/Jesus requires.

I can show from scriptures that your proof text (Heb. 5:9) disqualifies at least two "apostles".

Nowhere in the bible do I find where God required perfect sinlessness for a person to be reckoned righteous. All God required of Abraham, David and John's parents was faithful obedience and not the work of flawless law keeping the law of Moses required to be completely justified.


DeaconDean said:
Regarding Hebrews 5:9, we read:

"Christ's Purity—He Learned Obedience

But there is one last foundation for our eternal salvation. Christ became the source of eternal salvation, not only because of his dignity and eternity, but also because of his purity. And not just the purity that he brought to his ministry as the Son of God, but purity that he had to forge in the furnace of suffering.


If you ask, Did his divine dignity and his priestly eternity give him automatic purity? the answer is No. It was not automatic. Verse 8 says, "Although He was a Son, He learned obedience from the things which He suffered." This does not mean he moved from being disobedient to being obedient. It means he moved from being untested to being tested and proven. He moved from obeying without any suffering to obeying through unspeakable suffering. It means that the gold of his natural purity was put in the crucible and melted down with white-hot pain, so that he could learn from experience what suffering is and prove that his purity would persevere.

And did this come automatically? No. Verse 7 says that it was prayed for and begged for and cried out for and wept for with tears. This was no fake test of Christ's purity. Everything in the universe hung on this test.

Was it brief? Some take verse 7 to refer only to the battle in Gethsemane when he sweat drops of blood and pleaded with God. I don't think so. Notice the word "days" in verse 7—"In the days of His flesh." Not just a night or a day, but during all the "days of his humanity" he was wrestling and praying and begging and crying out and weeping. It was not brief. It was a lifetime of warfare against sin.

And when verse 7b says that he was praying and crying "to the One able to save Him from death," does that mean that he was mainly praying for deliverance from physical death? Was that the main aim of his praying in the days of his flesh? I don't think so, because verse 7 says "he was heard." I think that means God gave him what he asked for, and verse 8 describes the effect of that answered prayer: he learned obedience. Jesus was praying for obedience—for persevering purity.

In other words, Jesus knew that there was a death worse than death. Much worse. Physical death is bad enough and he desired that there be another way to do the Father's will than to die on the cross. But far more horrible than dying on the cross was the impurity of unbelief and disobedience. That was the great and horrible threat. So he prayed all his life against that, and he was heard by his Father and, instead of caving in to sin, he learned obedience from what he suffered.

He became a source of eternal salvation because of his dignity as the Son of God and his eternity in the priesthood of Melchizedek and his purity in the crucible of incredible suffering.

Do You Have This Eternal Salvation?


Which leaves one last question: Do you have this eternal salvation? Not everyone does. Verse 9 tells us who does: "And having been made perfect, He became to all those who obey Him the source of eternal salvation." Those who are obeying Christ have the eternal salvation that he obtained for us. Are you obeying Christ? Or are you living in disobedience to his will?

One thing is very clear from Hebrews: the will of Christ that has to be obeyed is first and foremost the command to trust him, to hold fast to our hope (3:6), to guard against a heart of unbelief (3:12), to hold fast to our confession (4:14), and to draw near to Christ for help (4:16). In other words, the first and main act of obedience is to believe in the promises of God (3:18–19) and to hope in him. All other obedience, according to Hebrews, is the fruit of this first and root act of obedience (10:34; 11:8, 24–26; 13:5–6, 13–14). So daily acts of practical obedience are the evidence of this first obedient act of saving faith.

Source

It was because of Christ's perfect obedience to God that makes him the perfect sacrifice and givng Him his perfect righteousness. Therefore those that OBEY Christ in baptism are therefore "in Christ" where they are clothed in Christ's perfect righteousness, Gal 3:27

DeaconDean said:
In the second place, I love it when people use eschatological passages to refer to present day Christians.

There is no difference in how one was saved/reckoned righteous back then as to how they are today..by a faithful obedience.


DaconDean said:
In the third place, I am also forced to agree with Martin Luther when he wrote:

"In the first place it is flatly against St. Paul and all the rest of Scripture in ascribing justification to works 2:24). It says that Abraham was justified by his works when he offered his son Isaac (2:20); Though in Romans 4:22-22 St. Paul teaches to the contrary that Abraham was justified apart from works, by his faith alone, before he had offered his son, and proves it by Moses in Genesis 15:6. Although it would be possible to "save" the epistle by a gloss giving a correct explanation of justification here ascribed to works, it is impossible to deny that it does refer to Moses' words in Genesis 15 (which speaks not of Abraham's works but of his faith, just as Paul makes plain in Romans 4) to Abraham's works."

Source

Have you ever studies what it means to "righteous" and "justified"?

"This word draws directly from the Hebrew word “tsadag” (tsaw-dak). Which is rendered in the OT as “justify”, “righteous”, “just”, “justice”, “cleansed”, “cleanse ourselves”, “righteousness”.

Looking at the word in the LXX, it is a “forensic” term. Yet in the LXX, the predominate usage does not carry a negative meaning as some Greek usage: (w QemistokleeV, en toisi agwsi oi proexanistamenoi rapizontai. o de apoluomenoV efh oi de ge egkataleipomenoi ou stefanountai.) but is constantly used in the most positive sense of “to pronounce righteous,” “to justify”, “to vindicate”. The forensic element is even stronger in the Masoretic text in that the Masoretic Isa. 42:25 is rendered as they find righteousness with Yahweh, and in the LXX it is rendered that they are declared righteous by him (apo kuriou dikaiw qhsoutai).

A fact that most seen to overlook at are the differences between what Paul is quoting from, and what James quotes, rather, bases their statements on. Paul uses Gen. 15:6 as his basis in Romans 4, and James uses Gen. 22:1-19 for his basis. Abraham was seventy-five years old when he believed God in Genesis 15. However, Abraham was 100 years old when Isaac was born. (cf. Gen. 22:6) Tradition has it that Isaac was around twenty-five when Abraham took him to the mountain for the sacrifice. If the Catholics and Arminians are correct, then it logically means that Abraham had to wait fifty years in order to actually be justified! No! We merely point out that the offering of his son, gave evidence to Abraham’s faith in God.

Professing to be a Christian when one is not may secure a standing before men, it may improve his moral and social prestige, he may be able to join a church, and help promote his commercial interests, but can it save him? What is the use to fein to be charitable when works of charity are withheld? What good does it bring to calling oneself a Christian when empty stomachs are met with good words? How can a person claim to be a Christian and clothe the naked by good wishes? What does it profit to profess to be a believer when there is no true piety?

Neither can a person be saved by a mere empty hollow confession of the Gospel. To say that I am a Christian and am unable to appeal to any good works and spiritual fruits as proof of it, profits neither the person nor those who listen. Without the essential element of “faith worketh by love” (cf. Gal. 5:6), no matter how much reading or studying, no amount of head knowledge, no amount of preaching and teaching one can do, they are no more than “sounding brass and tinkling symbol.” Without love, those professors will be the ones pleading their works but will be told: “Depart, I never knew ye.”

So…we conclude that “works,” as far as justification is concerned, plays no part. We are indeed justified by faith alone, in Christ alone.

Martin Luther wrote in his preface to James and Jude: “James does nothing more than drive a man to the Law and its works.” And this is apparent in some faiths teachings. However, Luther also admits that James wanted to guard against those who relied on faith exclusively but wasn’t quite up to the task.

During the first century, it is commonly held that James was the bishop of the church in Jerusalem. And Paul was a missionary. History dictates that during the early church, two viewpoints developed early on. Paul is well known for his battles with “legalists.” They were the type who said faith in God was correct, but what was also required was a submission to the “Law.”

Luther also was quick to point out that James called the “Law” a “perfect law of liberty.” (cf. Jas. 1:25) Paul viewed it as a Law that brings slavery, (Gal. 5:3) wrath, (Rom. 4:15) sin, (Rom. 7:7) and death (Rom. 7:10).

When men are turned away from their own self-efforts, the next step is to run in the complete opposite direction. If they cannot trust in their own self-righteousness, if they cannot be justified by their own works, then it is just a minor shift to reject works of any kind, and there is no such thing as ungodly living or ungodly practice. This is the door which leads down the path to antinomianism. They turn the grace of God into lasciviousness. (Jude 1:4) And this is very apparent in what it was spreading during the early church.

It has been argued that Paul and James are not contradictory, but rather, complimentary. This can be seen by the statements by these men in that Paul says you are justified by faith, verse James’ teaching that you are justified by works and not by faith alone. Arthur W. Pink wrote:

“Unless the subject and scope of James’ Epistle be clearly seen, the apprehension of many of its statements can only issue in God-dishonoring, grace-repudiating, soul-destroying error. To this portion of the Word of God, more than any other, have legalists appealed in their opposition to the grand truth of justification by grace, through faith, without works. To the declarations of this Epistle have they turned to find support for their Christ-insulting, man-exalting, Gospel-repudiating error of justification by human works. Merit-mongers of all descriptions cite James 2 for the purpose of setting aside all that is taught elsewhere in Scripture on the subject of justification. Romanists, and their half-brothers the Arminians, quote "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only" (v. 24), and suppose that ends all argument.”

Three times in Romans 4, the preposition “eiV” (ice) is used. In verse 5: “his faith is counted “eiV = for” righteousness.” In verse 9: “faith was reckoned to him “eiV = for” righteousness. In verse 22: “it was imputed to him “eiV = for” righteousness.” In each of these verses, the preposition “eiV” never means “in the stead of”, but signifies “towards, in order to, with a view to”, and in rare circumstances, it can mean “because of.” It has a uniform usage as “into” or “unto.” The clearest meaning in this passage of scriptures is found in verse 10: “with the heart man believeth unto “eiV” righteousness”: that the believing heart reaches out towards and lays hold of Christ Himself. This passage (cf. Rom. 10:10) may help us to understand what justification by faith is, for it shows that righteousness there comes to us when we embrace God’s goodness offered to us in the Gospel. We are then, for this reason, made just: because we believe that God’s propitious to us through Christ. (Calvin)

The Holy Spirit meant what He related to the Apostles as they wrote the New Testament. And some words were chosen with precision. Another preposition that merits note is “anti.” “Anti” as used in the Greek means: “over against; hence, in correspondence to, answering to, in place of, in retribution or return for, in consideration of, on account of.” This is important as it helps us make our point. It is important in that righteousness is never imputed to us “on account of” faith. Righteousness is never imputed to us “because of” faith. Righteousness is never imputed to us “in consideration of” faith. Righteousness is never imputed to us “in correspondence to” faith. Righteousness is never imputed to us “in answering to” faith. And most importantly, righteousness is never imputed to us “in place of” faith or perfect obedience.

Some may argue that the texts agree with Darby’s position. Does it say that Abraham’s faith was account for righteousness? To answer that, we point to what King David said: “Purge me with hyssop, and I shall be clean.” Are we to believe that hyssop, a worthless shrub, has the kind of fitness to stand in the place of the sacrificial blood, and make an atonement for? It has no more fitness as faith to stand in the place of Christ’s perfect obedience, to act as our justifying righteousness, or to procure our acceptance with God.

Martin Luther, the one that changed/perverted the word of God to force his man made "faith only" theology.

Luther must have never read Romans 6:17-18. Note the order of events as Paul puts them:

1) servants of sin
2) OBEYED from the heart that form of doctrine
3) THEN freed from sin/justified

So Luther is wrong and Paul is right in ascribing obedient works to justification/freed from sin.

Romans 6:16 "Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?"

Paul said each one of us serve one of two masters, we serve either:

1) sin unto death
or
2) obedience unto righteousness


I serve #2. If Luther were here I would ask him which master he serves. His 'faith only" eliminates him serving #2. So what would Luther say? Would he try and change, rewrite this passage as he did elsewhere in the Roman epistle?


DeaconDean said:
In Genesis 15:6 we read: “And he believed in the Lord; and He counted it to him for righteousness.” Now, was it Abraham’s faith itself which was in God’s account taken for righteousness (Darby’s assumption). Or, was it the righteousness of God in Christ which Abraham’s faith laid hold of? Abraham’s faith was nothing more and nothing less than the renunciation of all virtue and strength in himself, and placing a child-like trust upon God for what He was willing and able to do. This is very far from his faith being a mere substitute for a righteousness which he lacked. Even further was God’s accepting Abraham’s faith “in place of” a perfect obedience to His Law. Rather was Abraham’s faith the acting of a soul which found its life, its hope, its all in the Lord Himself. And that is what “justifying” faith is, it is “simply the instrument by which Christ and His righteousness are received in order to justification.” It is emptiness filled with Christ’s fullness; impotency lying down upon Christ’s strength.” (J.L. Girardeau)"

The Doctrine of Justification, Restated and Reviewed, By DeaconDean

Righteous and justified go hand in hand.

"Our Greek word has its root in the Greek word “dikh”. This word means “right”, “justice”; in the NT, judicial punishment, vengeance; 2 Thes. 1:9; Jude 7; sentence of punishment, judgment, Acts 25:15; personified, the goddess of justice or vengeance, Nemesis, Paena, Acts 28:4."

Ibid

If our salvation was dependent on our "obedience" as you say, not a single one of us, the apostles included, would be saved.

God Bless

Till all are one.

Gen 15:6 does not say Abraham "believed only", men assume that into the verse. Abraham's belief in Gen 15 would have included his obedience in moving of Gen 12 and his building altars and worshipping God in Gen 13.

1) God would not say what He said to Abraham in Genesis 15:1 to a lost, unsaved reprobate. Therefore Abraham was already in a saved covenant relationship with God prior to Gen 15:6. Abraham would not be "of..God" in Genesis 14:19 if he was not saved until Genesis 15:6. Therefore Abraham was never saved by faith only in Gen 15:6 for he already was saved prior.

2) inspired writers James and Paul would not contradict each other with James saying Abraham justified by works and Paul saying he was not justified by works. In my earlier post on Romans 4, the works Paul said Abraham was NOT justified by was the work of flawless law keeping the OT required. So Paul was ruling out the work of flawless law keeping and not obedient works. And it is obedient works that James speaks about that justified Abraham Hebrews 11:8,17).

James-------works>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>justifies
Paul-------obey form the heart>>>>>>>>>>justified/freed from sin

Total complete harmony where jsutification is by obedient works and not by works of the OT law.

3) Abraham being reckoned righteous was a process over time and did not happen at one moment in time when he supposedly had faith only...for he never had faith only. Paul quotes Gen 15:6 as to when Abraham was reckoned righteous. James does too and connects works with Abraham's faith.

Abraham's faith was reckoned righteous elsewhere besides Genesis 15:6. It was reckoned righteous when he left his home to move, Hebrews 11:8 cf Romans 4:13.

Abraham's faith being reckoned righteous in Rom 4:22 which is based on things that happened in Romans 4:17-21 which is about 15 years after Gen 15 when Abraham was about 100 years old in Genesis 17.

And it was not until much later when Abraham offered Isaac that it is said " Lay not thine hand upon the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him: for now I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son from me." Genesis 22:12. It was not "now I know" in Gen 15:6 but God's final approval came much later when Isaac was offered, the same obedient work that James speaks about in James 2. God put Abraham through a process, a test that Abraham faithfully went through so how can it ever be thought that God saves one by mere faith only?
 
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TheSeabass

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Also, one more footnote.

In Genesis 22:8, Abraham is walking Isaac towards the mount to sacrifice.

Abraham says:

"My son, God will provide himself a lamb for a burnt offering: so they went both of them together." -Gen. 22:8 (KJV)

There 16 different names for God.

In this passage, one name for God is used here and nowhere else.

Jehovah-Jireh. (God will provide)

It is used only in Genesis 22:14 the spot where the sacrifice was to occur.

Which means, although Abraham was doing as he was told, it was his faith in God that God (Jehovah-Jireh) would provide a ram for sacrifice.

That is why Paul refers to Abraham as the father of faith. (cf. Rom. 3:27-4:25)

But, even faith cannot produce "perfect" obedience.

The great preacher Charles H. Spurgeon preached:

"Next, obedience should be exact. Even Abraham's obedience failed somewhat in this at first; for he started at once from Ur of the Chaldees, but he only went as far as Haran, and there he stayed till his father died; and then the precept came to him again, and he set off for the land which the Lord had promised to show him. If any of you have only half obeyed, I pray that you may take heed of this, and do all that the Lord commands, carefully endeavouring to keep back no part of the revenue of obedience."

Source

God Bless

Till all are one.
Again, who has argued that God requires perfect, flawless, sinlessness for one to be saved?
 
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