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Was Mary without sin?

Was Mary without sin?

  • Yes

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PassthePeace1

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There is a negative,unfavorable trend rooted in Augustine's anti Pelagianism: It accentuates the universaltiy of orignal sin and articulates the connections between inherited sin and any conception consequent upon sinful concupiscence. Th root Idea is summed up by Leo the Great. "Alone therefore among the sons of men The Lord Jesus was born innocent because alone conceived without pollution of carnal concupiscence." The same concept is discoerable in St. Fulgentius, Bishop of Ruspe in Africa (d.533) The most significant theologian of his time. In Pope Gregory the Great. (d.604) at the end of the sixth century and a century later in Venerable Bede, (Juniper Carol.Ed. Mariology Milwaukee Bruce ,1955 Volume 1 Page 146.

Okay, but this is still more of the same...quotes from another source than the original writings. Can you list in Juniper Carol's footnotes...the sources of her quotes..meaning the title of the writings that they are drawn from....that way, if I can find them on the web, the quotes can be viewed in full context.

Peace be with you....Pam
 
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Latreia

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Post self-deleted due to lack of importance.

icon11.gif
 
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Benedicta00

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The title of this thread is "Was Mary without sin?"...that is what I am dicussing with IAA. She posted the following:


To which I replied.

And she responded.



I am now waiting on her sources footnotes...to the titles of this ECF's writings. So thanks for the link, but I am confused on your last comment...because the sinless of Mary is what is in dispute. Sorry, if I miss understood you...but I really couldn't draw what you were getting at in your comment.

Peace be with you...Pam
I think she is just confused and thinking a dispute of the IC is the same as disputing her sinlessness. It's not.
 
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Benedicta00

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What does not come across clearly in that article is that the "dispute" if one can call it that, had to do with what IS stated in the article . . Mary's "animation" . . ie ENSOULMENT.

What was actually argued during the time period above was that Mary could not have been immaculately conceived for Mary, AS A PERSON, did not yet exist upon conception . . she wasn't there . . only an INANIMATE something was there . . .

This is a very crucial issue to understand . .. if Mary was not there at the conception of the physical material that would become her body, then there could be no immaculate conception . ..

But ALL AGREED that by the time of ensoulment, Mary was immaculate.

This all had to do with the scientific concepts they were working at the time, not theological ones.

Mary's perpetual sinlessness was never an issue until after the Reformation and then only gradually by Protestantism.


.
I think this 'dispute' is what IAA is referencing. Not realizing that this is not a dispute over sinlessness but over the particulars of the IC doctrine.

No ECF disputed Mary's sinlessness. I think Tertullian disputed the perpetual virginity but, um no ECF disputed her sinlessness, Martin Luther didn't even.

It's putting oneself out there to claim they did.

Who would they even dispute it with? Themselves? It is their witness who says she was, how do you dispute yourself?
 
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IamAdopted

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The Decree of Pope Pius IX. on the Immaculate…
[This document, though issued by the sole authority of Pope Pius IX., Dec. 8,1864, must be regarded now as infallible and irreformable, even without the formal sanction of the Vatican Council. It is purely negative, but indirectly it teaches and enjoins the very opposite of what it condemns as error. See Vol. I. § 20, pp. 128–134.] Here is a link for you to view.. Took me some time but I did find the link..

http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/creeds2.v.i.iv.html
 
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OrthodoxyUSA

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I think you meant this one...

The Decree of Pope Pius IX. on the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary.

http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/creeds2.v.i.iii.html Which I totally disagree with BTW.

Your link goes to:
"The Syllabus of the principal errors of our time, which are stigmatized in the Consistorial Allocutions, Encyclicals, and other Apostolical Letters of our Most Holy Lord, Pope Pius IX."

IOW ~ A list of things condemned by Pope Pius IX as being false.

Forgive me...
 
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IamAdopted

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I think you meant this one...

The Decree of Pope Pius IX. on the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary.

http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/creeds2.v.i.iii.html

Your link goes to:
"The Syllabus of the principal errors of our time, which are stigmatized in the Consistorial Allocutions, Encyclicals, and other Apostolical Letters of our Most Holy Lord, Pope Pius IX."

IOW ~ A list of things condemned by Pope Pius IX as being false.

Forgive me...
Much reading to be done on the link I gave.. Going into all the volumes of His..
 
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PassthePeace1

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The Decree of Pope Pius IX. on the Immaculate…
[This document, though issued by the sole authority of Pope Pius IX., Dec. 8,1864, must be regarded now as infallible and irreformable, even without the formal sanction of the Vatican Council. It is purely negative, but indirectly it teaches and enjoins the very opposite of what it condemns as error. See Vol. I. § 20, pp. 128–134.] Here is a link for you to view.. Took me some time but I did find the link..

http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/creeds2.v.i.iv.html

Was the post quoted above, inregards to our conversation? If so, I am not following you...what does it have to do with the post, below...and my responses.


This doctrine of Mary being sinless originated in the 5th century.. It was also rejected by the Fathers and Popes of the early church.. It was decreed a dogma of the faith necessary to be believed for salvation by Pius IX in 1854 in the papal decree Ineffailis Deus.

You stated that the concept of Mary being sinless originated in the 5th century, and that it was rejected by the Fathers and Popes of the Early Church. I noticed the way you worded your post, by say "rejected by the Fathers and Popes of the early church", that you were implying that most, if not all of the Early Church Fathers and Popes reject the ideal that Mary was sinless. Cuz, you didn't say "some" or "a few of Early Church Fathers, and Popes". That is why I asked you the following, in the quote below.


What Early Church Fathers and Popes of the early Church, rejected that Mary was without sin?

I ask this, because I want to know what is the sources on which you have drawn your conclusions. I figured you either have read several writings of Early Church Fathers and Popes, that wrote against Mary being sinless, or you read someone elses opinion on the subject. Judging by your response, it appears to be the latter....but still, Walter Burghart and Juniper Carol, should have footnotes for the source of their quotes, that they presented in their arguements.


The Roman Catholic patristic scholar Walter Burghart Writes of this. Augustine, Pope Leo I Pope Gregory the Great, Anselm, Bede, Bernard of Clairveaux and Tomas Aquinas. For centuries it was a matter of violent dispute within the Church between the Dominicans and the Franciscans.

No sources provided in this quote, although I did look up Augustine...which I later posted.

Does he list in his writings the sources from which he draws his conclusion. Mainly what I am looking for is the sources from the Early Church Father's writings....he should have listed them in footnotes...thanks

Below, I posted from one of the ECFs, that was listed in Walter Burghart's comments...and it shows that Augustine did indeed, believe in Mary being sinless. In fact, he makes a point...to draw attention, so he won't be misunderstood...that he believes Mary was sinless.

"We must except the holy Virgin Mary, concerning whom I wish to raise no question when it touches the subject of sins, out of honor to the Lord; for from Him we know what abundance of grace for overcoming sin in every particular was conferred upon ber who had the merit to concieve and bear Him who undoubtedly had no sin. Well, then, if, with this exception of the Virgin, we could only assemble together all the forementioned holy men and women, and ask them whether they lived without sin while they were in this life, what can we suppose would be their answer? Would it be in the language of our author(Pelagius) or in the words of the Apostle John? I put it to you, whether, on having such a question submitted to them, however excellent might have been their sanctity in this body, they would not have exclaimed with one voice: 'If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us' ?(1 John 1:8)


I went and dug out one of my quotes from Early Church Father's book...and dusted it off, and type out the quote above from Augustine....it does look like he wrote in support of Mary being without sin.

There is a negative,unfavorable trend rooted in Augustine's anti Pelagianism: It accentuates the universaltiy of orignal sin and articulates the connections between inherited sin and any conception consequent upon sinful concupiscence. Th root Idea is summed up by Leo the Great. "Alone therefore among the sons of men The Lord Jesus was born innocent because alone conceived without pollution of carnal concupiscence." The same concept is discoerable in St. Fulgentius, Bishop of Ruspe in Africa (d.533) The most significant theologian of his time. In Pope Gregory the Great. (d.604) at the end of the sixth century and a century later in Venerable Bede, (Juniper Carol.Ed. Mariology Milwaukee Bruce ,1955 Volume 1 Page 146.

Okay, but this is still more of the same...quotes from another source than the original writings. Can you list in Juniper Carol's footnotes...the sources of her quotes..meaning the title of the writings that they are drawn from....that way, if I can find them on the web, the quotes can be viewed in full context.

Peace be with you....Pam

So can you please provide, the sources for the ECFs and Popes that rejected...Mary being sinless? Thanks.

Peace be with you...Pam
 
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Benedicta00

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IAA,

You are confusing the IC dogma with Mary's sinlessness. Everyone in Christendom believed she was sinless her whole life but not everyone agrees with the Catholic Church's explanation of how she was made sinless, which is what the IC is, an explanation, not if she was or wasn't.

Of course she was... so you can stop looking for the ECF who disputed it, there are none. You won't find any.
 
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OrthodoxyUSA

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IAA,

You are confusing the IC dogma with Mary's sinlessness. Everyone in Christendom believed she was sinless her whole life but not everyone agrees with the Catholic Church's explanation of how she was made sinless, which is what the IC is, an explanation, not if she was or wasn't.

Of course she was... so you can stop looking for the ECF who disputed it, there are none. You won't find any.

The Orthodox Churches teach that she was made pure and whole (the stain of Adam's removed) when Christ entered her womb, and that she was born just like the rest of us.

That, in a nutshell is the difference between the beliefs of The Church of Rome and the other Churches concerning Mary's sinlessness.

Forgive me...
 
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IamAdopted

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IAA,

You are confusing the IC dogma with Mary's sinlessness. Everyone in Christendom believed she was sinless her whole life but not everyone agrees with the Catholic Church's explanation of how she was made sinless, which is what the IC is, an explanation, not if she was or wasn't.

Of course she was... so you can stop looking for the ECF who disputed it, there are none. You won't find any.
I stated that this dogma that you all follow was not even brought around until the 5th century.. By Pope Pius and He didn't even have the council on it He just stated it and said that anyone who went against this teaching was athema...
 
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Latreia

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I think she means anathema.

1 a: one that is cursed by ecclesiastical authority b: someone or something intensely disliked or loathed — usually used as a predicate nominative [wash my mouth][wash my mouth][wash my mouth][wash my mouth]is notion was anathema to most of his countrymen — S. J. Gould>


OOOPS! Warning, remove the little >>><<<'s:

..this notion was anathema to most of his countrymen &#8212; S. J. Gould.
Good grief all that stupid edit on a "th"


2 a: a ban or curse solemnly pronounced by ecclesiastical authority and accompanied by excommunication b: the denunciation of something as accursed c: a vigorous denunciation : curse

Pope Pius might have used some other word.....?
 
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Iollain

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The Orthodox Churches teach that she was made pure and whole (the stain of Adam's removed) when Christ entered her womb, and that she was born just like the rest of us.

That, in a nutshell is the difference between the beliefs of The Church of Rome and the other Churches concerning Mary's sinlessness.

Forgive me...

So...when was John the Baptist made to be sinless? And why did Mary die?
 
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OrthodoxyUSA

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So...when was John the Baptist made to be sinless? And why did Mary die?

John the Baptist was just like you and I, with the noted exception that he led a blameless life. As to when he himself was baptised and released of the stain of Adam, I do not know. I feel certain that our Lord knows. He is regarded as the model of how blameless a man can be. A model for all men. Likewise, Mary is the model for all women.

Why did Mary die? Perhaps I don't understand your question. Mary was fully human just as we are, born with the stain of Adam's sin. Are you asking what she died from? In what manner did she die? My understanding is that she was told of her impending death and made requests to see the Apostles. She died in their presence (minus Thomas who was delayed) and they burried her in a tomb.

When Thomas arrived, three days late, he asked to see her body. They took him to the tomb, and he alone witnessed her ascending and spoke with her. When they opened the tomb, she was gone. They all believed Thomas and later she appeard to them again in the upper room.

Forgive me...:liturgy:
 
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CaliforniaJosiah

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Everyone in Christendom believed she was sinless her whole life



I'm going to interpret your "everyone" to be a strong hyperbole, but I would appreciate just 5 quotes from Christians who wrote before the year 200 who clearly state that Mary was sinless for her entire life - from her conception until her death or nondeath. It would be good if there is a mix of western and eastern authors on that. Just 5 from before 200 AD would be enough to give me suffient reason to believe the idea is at least old and more than the opinion of a single person and that your statement has some credence. That wouldn't make it correct of course (you could give me a LOT more quotes from Gnostics from before 200 AD), but at least would give SOME credence to your statement for me.


Thanks!




but not everyone agrees with the Catholic Church's explanation of how she was made sinless, which is what the IC is, an explanation, not if she was or wasn't.


It's dogma.



Thank you for the discussion and for reading my $0.01


Pax!


- Josiah



.
 
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OrthodoxyUSA

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I don't think sinless people die. All of mankind are going to die, unless your the ones who are in the Rapture.....they will be changed into incorruptible.

Interesting...

Was Christ not sinless? Did he not die? Was it not Adams stain that he took upon himself?

Perhaps you mean to say that you do not believe sinless people would grow old and die a natural death?

We Orthodox do not believe that Adam and Eve grew any older until the fall, unplugging themselves from the Holy Spirit of God, their very life sustaining force.

Forgive me...:liturgy:
 
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Iollain

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No i don't imagine they would have, but what would have happened to their kids, stayed babies forever?

Yes Christ was sinless and He also took on flesh. But what would that have to do with Mary's supposed sinlessness?

Also, would Jesus have had to die at all if He chose to not die like the Father wanted Him too? I'd say no He could have forsook the whole of us and not ever died.
 
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