Warning! Don't Mix the Old - With the New Covenant

[GDL]

Make up your mind

I did. Parallelism & equation are not necessarily definition.

You fail to deal with the NT separation of faith from faith's works of obedience in salvation (Ephesians 2:8-9) and justification (Romans 3:28), though not in sanctification (Romans 6:16, Romans 6:19).

I don't see the failure, at least on my part. I find no terminology in Scripture like "works of obedience" and if I did, I could easily classify the genitive as other than those I explained above.

I can see statements relating obedience & work in verses like Philippians 2:12 & Titus 3:1, but the work is the work & yes, the work is done in obedience. But Scripture is not equating work & obedience as it does faith & obedience.

This is why I wrote the equation faith-obedience > works and not faith-obedience-works and why James spells out faith + works. They are very distinct concepts, especially in Scripture & especially regarding Justification, as you know well.

The issue in Ephesians 2 is that God has done and does the work & initially only requires our faith-obedience in response. It's His Salvation Plan. God created it, and He, Christ & the Spirit did all the work to implement it. Only He can make us alive, raise us & seat us together with Christ. All of this combines in that section of Scripture to tell us HIS Salvation is by HIS Grace gifted through faith (faith-obedience in response to His command to believe on the name of His Son). We did no work in this, nor could we. Our faith-obedience + works that He created us for in Christ Jesus follows after our initial faith-obedience to His command to believe.

I can also point you to John 6:29 in which I see Jesus saying our faith is God's work in the context of John 6:44-45 that says God is drawing us to [believe] Jesus by teaching us. Our part is to hear & learn from the Father and come to (believe) Jesus is His Christ. And Jesus commands unbelievers in John 6:27 to work (get where you need to go to hear & learn what our Father teaches about His Son) to receive the gift (teaching) He gives that lasts for eternal life. So, this work to hear & learn must be harmonized with Paul's Ephesians 2 teaching, which is really just about the entirety of God's Salvation Plan and work that we could not do for ourselves.

We have to deal with & harmonize all of these Scriptures to have an accurate understanding of faith & works. Most just seem to throw out all of this additional instruction and then tell us it's "faith alone" based upon a few other Scriptures that are not the entire teaching.

If you were to agree with this, I think you'd position this as: Faith-obedience for Justification & Faith-Obedience + Works (which God created us for per Ephesians 2) in Sanctification. I'd clarify this a bit because Sanctification is also used in the past tense for Christians (1 Corinthians 6:11) likely placing it concurrent with Justification (Acquittal). So, it's both a past event and a present continuing process for Christians.

 

[GDL]

I'll answer my own request for explanation of a unilateral contract, and my question regarding conditional vs. unconditional.

A unilateral contract is one in which 1 party promises to do something, not both parties. And a unilateral contract can be conditional or unconditional.

 

[ralliann]

Simple qustions for you to answer with yes or no

40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.

Are the ten commandments part of the law refered to in above verse spoken by the Lord Jesus Christ

The whole law? Yes. The whole law is from Genesis to Deuteronomy. If not the prophets included.

 

[GDL]

A bit more about unilateral & conditional:

The Abrahamic Covenant is said to be unilateral with God promising and even putting Abraham to sleep before unilaterally passing between the pieces of animal flesh thereby cutting the covenant with Abraham (Genesis 15).

Then, when it came time to pass the covenant down to Abraham's descendent, we're told:

Genesis 26:4-5 "And I will make your descendants multiply as the stars of heaven; I will give to your descendants all these lands; and in your seed all the nations of the earth shall be blessed; 5 "because Abraham obeyed My voice and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes, and My laws."

We're told in the NC that Abraham was credited with righteousness (Romans 4:3; Galatians 3:6; James 2:23) because he believed God. Yet we're hard-pressed to find Abraham not obeying what God told him to do (apart from a few failures). And here in Genesis 26 we're told that the covenant is being passed down because Abraham obeyed God's voice and laws.

This is simply the faith-obedience of Abraham, that is also called his faithfulness. This is why the NC uses the same terminology of faith-obedience. God does not allow for faith apart from obedience. But He does initially provide for faith apart from works, because He has done and does the work for us that we apart from Him and from His Christ cannot do.

It seems to me the Abrahamic Covenant was unilateral and conditional just as is the New Covenant.

 

[ralliann]

A unilateral covenant is the first party promising performance to the second party without any promise by the second party.
The first party could condition the promise to the second party without any promise by
the second party.

Unconditional is performance of the first party based on no conditions to the second party, and is not the same as unilateral.

It seems to me, unilateral is an established covenant (by an oath sworn). God will not repent of his oath. Nothing can be taken away or added to it.

 

[ralliann]

A bit more about unilateral & conditional:

The Abrahamic Covenant is said to be unilateral with God promising and even putting Abraham to sleep before unilaterally passing between the pieces of animal flesh thereby cutting the covenant with Abraham (Genesis 15).

Then, when it came time to pass the covenant down to Abraham's descendent, we're told:

Genesis 26:4-5 "And I will make your descendants multiply as the stars of heaven; I will give to your descendants all these lands; and in your seed all the nations of the earth shall be blessed; 5 "because Abraham obeyed My voice and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes, and My laws."

We're told in the NC that Abraham was credited with righteousness (Romans 4:3; Galatians 3:6; James 2:23) because he believed God. Yet we're hard-pressed to find Abraham not obeying what God told him to do (apart from a few failures). And here in Genesis 26 we're told that the covenant is being passed down because Abraham obeyed God's voice and laws.

This is simply the faith-obedience of Abraham, that is also called his faithfulness. This is why the NC uses the same terminology of faith-obedience. God does not allow for faith apart from obedience. But He does initially provide for faith apart from works, because He has done and does the work for us that we apart from Him and from His Christ cannot do.

It seems to me the Abrahamic Covenant was unilateral and conditional just as is the New Covenant.

When God swore an oath to Abraham in Genesis 22, it was a done deal.
The reason the Levitical order of Aaron could change law and disappear was because it lacked to be established with an oath.

 

[GDL]

When God swore an oath to Abraham in Genesis 22, it was a done deal.
The reason the Levitical order of Aaron could change law and disappear was because it lacked to be established with an oath.

I assume you include verses like Genesis 22:16.

Also, the Abrahamic Covenant doesn't begin in Genesis 22, but earlier.

Hope I'm understanding your point correctly.

 

[GDL]

It seems to me, unilateral is an established covenant (by an oath sworn). God will not repent of his oath. Nothing can be taken away or added to it.

I think you're agreeing that swearing by oath and cutting a covenant don't seem all that different. God refers to what He promised to Abraham both in the covenant cut and His oath sworn. He also conditions Isaac's blessing pursuant to His oath and covenant with Abraham upon Isaac's doing what He says (Genesis 26:3).

Also, if both parties promised and swore an oath it would be a bilateral contract. Both unilateral and bilateral (as well as multiple party contracts) are determined by whether 1 party or more than 1 party are promising to do something.

Is it the covenant that was changed re: the Priesthood, or the law included in the covenant, or both?

 

[ralliann]

I think you're agreeing that swearing by oath and cutting a covenant don't seem all that different. God refers to what He promised to Abraham both in the covenant cut and His oath sworn. He also conditions Isaac's blessing pursuant to His oath and covenant with Abraham upon Isaac's doing what He says (Genesis 26:3).

One covenant is without an oath sworn by God. Another is not with an oath by God. Two sons, with the women as allegories in Galatians.

Gal 3:15 Brethren, I speak after the manner of men; Though it be but a man’s covenant, yet if it be confirmed, no man disannulleth, or addeth thereto. {covenant: or, testament }
16 Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.
17 And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

Confirmation with an oath...immutability.....
Heb 7:16 For men verily swear by the greater: and an oath for confirmation is to them an end of all strife.
17 Wherein God, willing more abundantly to shew unto the heirs of promise the immutability of his counsel, confirmed it by an oath:


Covenant made in Genesis 15.
Gen 14:18 And Melchizedek king of Salem brought forth bread and wine: and he was the priest of the most high God.
19 And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth:
20 And blessed be the most high God, which hath delivered thine enemies into thy hand. And he gave him tithes of all.

It is Levi which was the seed in Abraham's loins when Melchzedek met Abraham.
Hebrews 7:9 And as I may so say, Levi also, who receiveth tithes, payed tithes in Abraham.
10 For he was yet in the loins of his father, when Melchisedec met him.

See also the eternal nature of the covenant of Genesis 17 for Israel. Law in the two below is not torah, but statute....I believe it is the statute of circumcision in the foreskin of the flesh A statute to eat of the passover...( a memorial sacrifice of the fulfillment of the covenant made with Abraham to bring them out of slavery)

1 chron. 16:16 Even of the covenant which he made with Abraham, and of his oath unto Isaac;
17 And hath confirmed the same to Jacob for a law, and to Israel for an everlasting covenant,

Ps 5:9 Which covenant he made with Abraham, and his oath unto Isaac;
10 And confirmed the same unto Jacob for a law, and to Israel for an everlasting covenant:

 

[GDL]

One covenant is without an oath sworn by God. one is not with an oath by God. Two sons, with the women as allegories in Galatians.
one confirmed.....Genesis 17
15 Brethren, I speak after the manner of men; Though it be but a man’s covenant, yet if it be confirmed, no man disannulleth, or addeth thereto. {covenant: or, testament }
16 Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.
17 And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

Confirmation with an oath...immutability.....
Heb 7:16 For men verily swear by the greater: and an oath for confirmation is to them an end of all strife.
17 Wherein God, willing more abundantly to shew unto the heirs of promise the immutability of his counsel, confirmed it by an oath:


Covenant made in Genesis 15.
Gen 14:18 And Melchizedek king of Salem brought forth bread and wine: and he was the priest of the most high God.
19 And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth:
20 And blessed be the most high God, which hath delivered thine enemies into thy hand. And he gave him tithes of all.

It is Levi which was the seed in Abraham's loins when Melchzedek met Abraham.
Hebrews 7:9 And as I may so say, Levi also, who receiveth tithes, payed tithes in Abraham.
10 For he was yet in the loins of his father, when Melchisedec met him.

Got it. Thanks. How is this responding to the issues Clare was talking about & I was responding to - unilateral, bilateral, conditional, unconditional, faith, obedience, works? There are things you've brought up that could be discussed, but it seems like a sidetrack.

 

[ralliann]

Got it. Thanks. How is this responding to the issues Clare was talking about & I was responding to - unilateral, bilateral, conditional, unconditional, faith, obedience, works? There are things you've brought up that could be discussed, but it seems like a sidetrack.

Unilateral is a theological term not used in scripture. Rather it is a term which IMO, describes a covenant confirmed with an oath. IMO, it opens the door for accusations of God lying, etc. etc. That we hear in these forums all the time. Making all Gods covenants a "promise". No, because he bound himself with an oath, he will not repent of it period.....Otherwise apart from an oath He can indeed change or turn from it, add to it etc..

 

[GDL]

Unilateral is a theological term not used in in scripture. Rather it is a term which IMO, describes a covenant confirmed with an oath.

Unilateral is more a legal term applied to & describing the contracts we see in Scripture whereby only one party makes a promise. The confirmation by oath seems to just add another dimension to the discussion. I'm happy to stick with the Text and discuss this in terms of whether God only made a promise in a certain Covenant, but at this point it seems unnecessary.

My original question to Clare was whether a conditional or unconditional contract is the same as a unilateral contract.

When it gets down to these Covenants (contracts) under discussion they are conditional and then the discussion has gone to whether the condition is faith, only faith, faith-obedience, or??? My point is that the condition is faith-obedience, and that faith-obedience cannot be a work in man's initial Salvation, or Justification, because faith is not a work & faith & obedience are equated and used in Scripture almost interchangeably. I think this is where the discussion currently stands.

 

[ralliann]

Unilateral is more a legal term applied to & describing the contracts we see in Scripture whereby only one party makes a promise. The confirmation by oath seems to just add another dimension to the discussion.

Yes, I would tend to agree.

I'm happy to stick with the Text and discuss this in terms of whether God only made a promise in a certain Covenant, but at this point it seems unnecessary.

My original question to Clare was whether a conditional or unconditional contract is the same as a unilateral contract.

The covenant of circumcision for Abraham was conditional.
Ge 17:1 And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect
2 And I will make my covenant between me and thee, and will multiply thee exceedingly.
3 And Abram fell on his face: and God talked with him, saying,
4 ¶ As for me, behold, my covenant is with thee, and thou shalt be a father of many nations. {many … : Heb. multitude of nations }

He was to walk before him and be made perfect, and if so, God would...This seems bi lateral at this point.

It is when Abraham goes through his testing his he is made perfect
Ge 22:12 And he said, Lay not thine hand upon the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him: for now I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son from me.
Immutable here. Or unilateral begins.....
Ge 22:16 And said, By myself have I sworn, saith the LORD, for because thou hast done this thing, and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son:
As James says
Jas 2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.

See the apostle peters letter concerning trials which when done faith is made perfect lacking nothing.

 

[Clare73]

I did. Parallelism & equation are not necessarily definition.

Are you sure about that regarding "equal?"

I don't see the failure, at least on my part. I find no terminology in Scripture like "works of obedience" and if I did, I could easily classify the genitive as other than those I explained above.

Your "hermeneutics" blinds you to the simple NT meaning of works (Romans 3:28).

The issue in Ephesians 2 is that God has done and does the work & initially only requires our faith-obedience in response. It's His Salvation Plan. God created it, and He, Christ & the Spirit did all the work to implement it. Only He can make us alive, raise us & seat us together with Christ. All of this combines in that section of Scripture to tell us HIS Salvation is by HIS Grace gifted through faith (faith-obedience in response to His command to believe on the name of His Son). We did no work in this, nor could we. Our faith-obedience + works that He created us for in Christ Jesus follows after our initial faith-obedience to His command to believe.

There is no obedience to any command apart from our rebirth, over which we have no control (John 3:3-8), as we do not over the gifts of faith (Philippians 1:29; 2 Peter 1:1; Acts 13:48, Acts 18:27; Romans 12:3) and repentance (2 Timothy 2:25; Acts 11:8, Acts 5:31).

I don't think we have any basis for discussion because of your hermeneutic which I do not accept.

 

[Clare73]

I'll answer my own request for explanation of a unilateral contract, and my question regarding conditional vs. unconditional.

A unilateral contract is one in which 1 party promises to do something, not both parties. And a unilateral contract can be conditional or unconditional.

Agreed. . .

 

[GDL]

Are you sure about that regarding "equal?"

But I didn't say "equal." This is what I wrote taking some explanatory terminology from Greek Beyond the Basics by Daniel Wallace:

I see in Romans 1:5 & 16:26 the phrase "obedience of faith" (ESV, NET, YLT translations that are translating it most literally) as being what's called a "genitive of Apposition" which equates the 2 words (obedience & faith) but does not say the equation is exact.

From Merriam Webster online:

equate
verb
\ i-ˈkwāt , ˈē-ˌkwāt \
equated; equating
Definition of equate
transitive verb
1a: to make equal : EQUALIZE
b: to make such an allowance or correction in as will reduce to a common standard or obtain a correct result
2: to treat, represent, or regard as equal, equivalent, or comparable // equates disagreement with disloyalty (My Note: even MW picks of a faith-obedience concept here)

Your "hermeneutics" blinds you to the simple NT meaning of works (Romans 3:28)

My interpretive methodology is simply to let all of Scripture inform me and not a single verse as if the rest of the Text, let alone the rest of a letter like Romans doesn't exist. As I showed, Paul parallels faith & obedience in Romans and even uses the 2 words interchangeably. So, it seems clear your methodology is to disregard this and leave "faith" in Romans 3:28 undefined and have it mean whatever you want it to. From there you mistakenly equate faith-obedience to works of law which contradicts Paul. This is very common among certain soteriological systems.

It's clear from Scripture that faith & obedience are equated and even interchangeable in Paul's mind, and this in Romans. I don't see him changing his thinking about this when he wrote Romans 3:28. So, faith-obedience cannot be what Paul is talking about in the phrase "works of law."

To believe in the name of God's Son as God commands is not the same as pursuing obedience to law for righteousness - doing works of law (Romans 9:31-32) for Justification. In fact, boasting is excluded by the law of faith, which is opposed to the law of works per the verse you did not include with Romans 3:28 - Romans 3:27.

When you study this technical phrase "works of law" and the associated phrase "under law" you'll find that nearly 2 millennia ago through today there are learned interpreters who basically explain them as negating Christ and the New Covenant and placing oneself back under the old era and thus apart from Christ, the Spirit, etc., and to attempt to accomplish your own acquittal and/or perfection by doing law, which cannot be done.

Works of law are simply not inclusive of obeying & believing God's Good News of His Son as people are commanded by God to do initially and continually.

There is no obedience to any command apart from our rebirth

But certainly, there is obedience to God's commands apart from the rebirth. Paul, prior to his rebirth, said he was blameless pursuant to the righteousness in the law (Philippians 3:6). Paul spoke of those who did not have the law but did the law showing it written in their hearts (Romans 2:14-15). None of this speaks of doing the law perfectly, but it clearly says obedience to commands can be done prior to rebirth. And any command to an unbeliever to believe is ludicrous according to your theory, but such commands clearly exist. Frankly we're fortunate most people, born from above or not, still obey such commands of God not to steal and murder. An obedient conscience is still a thing apparently.

Frankly, God even welcomes those who fear Him and work to accomplish righteousness in their pre-acquitted state (Read Acts 10 re: Cornelius & see 10:35)

You've clearly got some things very mixed up.

 

[BrotherJJ]

The Romans & Corinthians epistles cited, are both written to believers (Rom 1:7 - 1 Cor 1:2)

Rom
1 Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?

2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
(MY NOTE: A married person is bound to their spouse as long as their spouse is alive. When either spouse dies the marriage contract is void)

3 So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.
(MY NOTE: Both married parties are bound to their marriage contract until one or the other dies, voiding the contract)

4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.

(MY NOTE: Believers you're DEAD to/freed from the LAW. Thru Faith in Christ' law fulfilling sin required wage/payment. Now Betrothed/engaged (binding contract in Paul's day) to the Lord. No longer BOUND to the LAW! Because He DIED to sin Paying the laws required sin wage/payment. Fulfilling & whereby VOIDING the OT law contract, cut on Mt Sinai!)

5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death.
(MY NOTE: When Christ quickened/made you spiritually alive. Baptizing/sealing your marriage contract, with His Holy Spirit. He gave you eternal life & freed you from ALL the laws required sin wages to include DEATH)

6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.
(MY NOTE: Believers YOU ARE RIGHT NOW DELIVERED FROM THE LAW! Start living in the NOW, not in the oldness/PAST of the OT letter/OT law days).

7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
(MY NOTE: Christ's sin atoning death fulfilled the laws required wage. And retired the need for the TEACHER/law. Believers have already acknowledged their sin before God, confessed Jesus as Lord & Savior & believe He was Resurrected. And NOW possess the gift (Rom 6:23-B) of eternal life & sin & death have no power over any believer. God almighty is their protector!)

1 Cor 15
55 O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory?

56 The sting of death is sin; and the strength of sin is the law.
(MY NOTE: For those under the law, sin's required wage is DEATH). Faith in Jesus death FREED you from sins strength, the law)

57 But thanks be to God, which giveth us the victory through our Lord Jesus Christ.
(MY NOTE: A sinless Jesus willingly paid sins required wage/payment due. Faith placed in Jesus' sin atoning death & resurrection. Have FREED/delivered you from sins strength, the law)

Faith placed in Jesus' sin atoning death blots out/removes the sin punishments, invoked in Mosaic law ordinances. Nailing them to His cross [Col 2:14, Eph 2:15]. For every believer!

Not being under the OT Mosaic law covenant. Doesn't mean the NT assembly is void of any personal responsibility. The law pillars of the NT law are Faith & Love.

All praise, glory & honor belong to the Lord Jesus! AMEN & Amen...

 

[Soyeong]

The Romans & Corinthians epistles cited, are both written to believers (Rom 1:7 - 1 Cor 1:2)

Rom
1 Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?

2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
(MY NOTE: A married person is bound to their spouse as long as their spouse is alive. When either spouse dies the marriage contract is void)

3 So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.
(MY NOTE: Both married parties are bound to their marriage contract until one or the other dies, voiding the contract)

4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.

(MY NOTE: Believers you're DEAD to/freed from the LAW. Thru Faith in Christ' law fulfilling sin required wage/payment. Now Betrothed/engaged (binding contract in Paul's day) to the Lord. No longer BOUND to the LAW! Because He DIED to sin Paying the laws required sin wage/payment. Fulfilling & whereby VOIDING the OT law contract, cut on Mt Sinai!)

5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death.
(MY NOTE: When Christ quickened/made you spiritually alive. Baptizing/sealing your marriage contract, with His Holy Spirit. He gave you eternal life & freed you from ALL the laws required sin wages to include DEATH)

6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.
(MY NOTE: Believers YOU ARE RIGHT NOW DELIVERED FROM THE LAW! Start living in the NOW, not in the oldness/PAST of the OT letter/OT law days).

7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
(MY NOTE: Christ's sin atoning death fulfilled the laws required wage. And retired the need for the TEACHER/law. Believers have already acknowledged their sin before God, confessed Jesus as Lord & Savior & believe He was Resurrected. And NOW possess the gift (Rom 6:23-B) of eternal life & sin & death have no power over any believer. God almighty is their protector!)

1 Cor 15
55 O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory?

56 The sting of death is sin; and the strength of sin is the law.
(MY NOTE: For those under the law, sin's required wage is DEATH). Faith in Jesus death FREED you from sins strength, the law)

57 But thanks be to God, which giveth us the victory through our Lord Jesus Christ.
(MY NOTE: A sinless Jesus willingly paid sins required wage/payment due. Faith placed in Jesus' sin atoning death & resurrection. Have FREED/delivered you from sins strength, the law)

In Romans 7, Paul was contrasting the Law of God with the law of sin, where he said that the Law of God is not sinful but how we know what sin is (7:7), that it is holy, righteous, and good (7:12), that what is good did not bring death to him (7:13), that it is spiritual (7:14), that he wanted to do good (7:16), that he delighted in obeying it with his inner being (7:22), and that he served it with his mind (7:25), but he contrasted it with the law of sin, which stirred up sinful passions in order to bear fruit unto death (7:5), that we have been released from a law that held us captive (7:6), that it seized the opportunity through the Law of God to produce all kinds of covetousness and that apart from it sin lies dead (7:8), it caused sin to come alive and kill him (7:9), that it sized the opportunity through the Law of God to deceive it and through it kill him (7:11), that it responsible for producing death in him through that which is good (7:13), that caused Paul to do what he did not want to do (7:15-21), that was waging war against the law of his mind in order to hold him captive (7:23), and that he served with his flesh (7:25).

A law that stirs up sinful passions in order to bear fruit unto death (7:5) is a law that is sinful and therefore can't be referring to the same law as the Law of God that is not sinful (7:7). Likewise, it would be absurd to think that Paul delighted in stirring up sinful passions in order to bear fruit unto death, so (7:22) and (7:5) can't be referring to the same law. The law of sin is the law that Paul described as holding him captive (7:23), so being set free from a law that held us captive is referring to the law of sin (7:6). The intent of the Law of God revealing our sin is to lead us to repent and cause sin to decrease, while the intent of the law of sin is to cause sin to increase, so the law of sin works at opposite purposes of the Law of God. So verses that are interpreted as referring to the Law of God should make sense for it to be something that Paul delighted in doing, while verses that refer to a law that that is sinful, that causes sin to increase, or that hinders us from obeying the Law of God should be interpreted as referring to the law of sin, such as Romans 5:20, Romans 6:14, Galatians 2:19, Galatians 5:16-18, and 1 Corinthians 15:56. We have been freed from the law of sin in order to be free to obey the Law of God, not the other way around.

Faith placed in Jesus' sin atoning death blots out/removes the sin punishments, invoked in Mosaic law ordinances. Nailing them to His cross [Col 2:14, Eph 2:15]. For every believer!

All of the other times that the Greek word "dogma" is used outside of those two verses refers to something other than the Mosaic Law, so you need to give justification for interpretation those verses as referring to the Mosaic Law, especially when all of God's righteous laws are eternal (Psalms 119:160).

Not being under the OT Mosaic law covenant. Doesn't mean the NT assembly is void of any personal responsibility. The law pillars of the NT law are Faith & Love.

All praise, glory & honor belong to the Lord Jesus! AMEN & Amen...

Jesus spent his ministry teaching his followers how to obey the Mosaic Law by word and by example and he did not establish the New Covenant for the purpose of undermining anything that he spent his ministry teaching, but rather it still involves following the Mosaic Law (Jeremiah 31:33). Everything in the Mosaic Law is based on faith and love and is a way to express our faith and love for God, so if think that the law pillars of the NT are faith and love, then you should think that that is inclusive of everything in the Mosaic Law.

 

[BrotherJJ]

Jesus spent his ministry teaching his followers how to obey the Mosaic Law by word and by example and he did not establish the New Covenant for the purpose of undermining anything that he spent his ministry teaching, but rather it still involves following the Mosaic Law (Jeremiah 31:33). Everything in the Mosaic Law is based on faith and love and is a way to express our faith and love for God, so if think that the law pillars of the NT are faith and love, then you should think that that is inclusive of everything in the Mosaic Law.

Jesus earthly (pre-death) mission/ministry is to Jews ONLY!

Matt 15:24 But Jesus answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
(MY NOTE: Jesus teaches; He has been sent, ONLY, to the ""lost sheep of the house of Israel"")

Matt 10:
5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
(MY NOTE: Jesus tells His Chosen 12 DON'T go to GENTILES!)

6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
(MY NOTE: Jesus tells His Chosen & sends them to the """lost sheep of the house of Israel""" ONLY)

Rom 15:8 """Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision""" for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made unto the fathers:
(MY NOTE Scripture proclaims: Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision. """THE CIRCUMCISION = JEWS ONLY!)

Gal 4:4 But when the fullness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
(MY NOTE: God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law. To minister to: "the lost sheep of the house of Israel)

Jesus was born under the law, kept the law, preached & taught the law.

Non-Jews were considered so ungodly, even being in their presence could make a person ceremonially unclean (Jn 18:28).

Acts 10:28 Peter said unto them, Ye know how that it is an """unlawful""" thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God hath shewed me that I should not call any man common or unclean.
(MMY NOTE: Peter says it's """unlawful""" for a Jew to keep company with gentiles.

The rules change after Christ's sin payment & resurrection (Heb 7:12)

Years after the (Jewish only) outpouring of the Holy Spirit. Jesus sends Peter to the Italian gentile Cornelius house (Acts 10) & opens the door to gentiles. Jesus chooses Paul sends him to gentiles again fulfilling a by faith (not law) promise made to Abraham.

Eph 2:
12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.

14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;

15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;

 

[Soyeong]

Jesus earthly (pre-death) mission/ministry is to Jews ONLY!

Matt 15:24 But Jesus answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
(MY NOTE: Jesus teaches; He has been sent, ONLY, to the ""lost sheep of the house of Israel"")

Matt 10:
5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
(MY NOTE: Jesus tells His Chosen 12 DON'T go to GENTILES!)

6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
(MY NOTE: Jesus tells His Chosen & sends them to the """lost sheep of the house of Israel""" ONLY)

Rom 15:8 """Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision""" for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made unto the fathers:
(MY NOTE Scripture proclaims: Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision. """THE CIRCUMCISION = JEWS ONLY!)

Gal 4:4 But when the fullness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
(MY NOTE: God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law. To minister to: "the lost sheep of the house of Israel)

In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the nations, and God's law is how his audience knew what sin is, so repenting from our disobedience to it is an integral part of the Gospel message, which Jesus prophesied would be proclaimed from all nations (Matthew 24:12-14), and which he commissioned his disciples to bring to the nations (Matthew 28:16-20). Jesus told his disciples to teach their disciples everything that he taught them, so while he mainly directed his ministry at Jews, he intended everything that he taught them to also be taught to the nations. Furthermore, this was the Gospel that was made known in advance to Abraham (Galatians 3:8), which he spread to the nations in accordance with the promise (Genesis 12:1-5).

Jesus was born under the law, kept the law, preached & taught the law.

Someone can look at the law that Jesus spent his ministry teaching and decided whether or not to become his follower, but someone can't follow him by refusing to follow what he taught. In 1 Peter 2:21-22, we are told to follow Christ's example, in 1 John 2:6, we are told that those who are in Christ are obligated to walk in the same way he walked, and in 1 Corinthians 11:1, we are told to be imitators of Paul as he is an imitator of Christ. Furthermore, John 12:46-50, Jesus did not leave us any room to disregard anything that he taught during his ministry.

The rules change after Christ's sin payment & resurrection (Heb 7:12)

God's righteousness is eternal (Psalms 119:142), therefore all of His righteous laws are also eternal (Psalms 119:160), and if the way to act in accordance with God's righteousness were to ever change, such as with it becoming righteous to commit adultery or sinful to help the poor, then God's righteousness would not be eternal. So Hebrews 7:12 could not be referring to a change of the law in regard to its content, but rather in context, it is referring to a change of the priesthood, which would also require a change of the law in regard to its administration.

Years after the (Jewish only) outpouring of the Holy Spirit. Jesus sends Peter to the Italian gentile Cornelius house (Acts 10) & opens the door to gentiles. Jesus chooses Paul sends him to gentiles again fulfilling a by faith (not law) promise made to Abraham.

In Genesis 18:19, God knew Abraham that he would teach his children and those of his household to walk in His way by doing righteousness and justice that the Lord may bring to him all that He has promised, namely in Genesis 26:4-5, God will multiply Abraham's children as the stars of the heavens, to his children he will give all these lands, and through his children all of the nations of the earth will be blessed because Abraham heard God's voice and guarded His charge, His commandments, His statutes, and His laws. In Deuteronomy 30:15-16, if they love God and walk in His way by guarding His commandments, His statutes, and laws, then they will live and multiply and the Lord will bless them in the land that they are entering to possess. So all of the promises were made to Abraham and bought about because Abraham walked in God's way in obedience to His law, he taught his children to do that, and because his children did that through faith in the promise.

Eph 2:
12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.

14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;

15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;

In Ephesians 2:19, all of those things listed are no longer true in that through faith in Christ, Gentiles are no longer strangers or aliens, but are fellow citizens of Israel along with the saints in the household of God.