Universalism...why not?

Which is it?

  • God doesn't want all men to be saved.

    Votes: 4 8.2%
  • God can't do what he wants to do.

    Votes: 2 4.1%
  • Neither, God will continue to work on unrepentant souls because his love & patience are unending.

    Votes: 40 81.6%
  • Don't know...never thought about this before.

    Votes: 3 6.1%

  • Total voters
    49

Der Alte

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I most certainly do know know what it means and I have read you responses to posts and seen where you have done just that. I won't bother to engage in any further communication with you because I believe all you are interested in doing in forcing your view down other people throats.
Wrong again, to my knowledge I have never posted a straw man argument. I quote exactly what I am responding to and address what it actually says. No further responses? Fine by me. I see where you are coming from. As if virtually all the universalists in this discussion are not doing exactly that. I see folks quoting anything, everything they can find online regardless of the lack of qualifications of the source. If it supports universalism and is online, it has been or sooner or later it will be quoted here. I see one 'book" "Hope Beyond Hell" being linked and quoted here over and over. The writer, I will not give him the respect of calling him an author, has zero qualifications in Hebrew, Greek or any other relevant field.
.....On the other hand I quote only accredited scholars and references and directly from actual historical sources not second or third hand quotes. So do what you will that will not deter me from pointing out errors which you may post.
 
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mkgal1

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Considering that the Greek word aionios has a range of meanings
This point that ClementofA has made [multiple] times is what seems to be getting ignored. It's happened with the OT word "olam" as well (used in Jonah, for one example)---even Strongs has ignored the meaning of "long duration" and leapt to the meaning of "forever". We all know Jonah wasn't in the belly of a whale/fish forever.

Strongs: Strong's Hebrew: 5769. עוֹלָם (olam) -- long duration, antiquity, futurity

olam: long duration, antiquity, futurity
Original Word: עוֹלָם
Part of Speech: Noun Masculine
Transliteration: olam
Phonetic Spelling: (o-lawm')
Short Definition: forever

Strongs Jude 7: Jude 1:7 Lexicon: just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities around them, since they in the same way as these indulged in gross immorality and went after strange flesh, are exhibited as an example in undergoing the punishment of eternal fire.

compared to Ezekiel 16:53 "'However, I will restore the fortunes of Sodom and her daughters and of Samaria and her daughters, and your fortunes along with them,
 
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ClementofA

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Wrong again, to my knowledge I have never posted a straw man argument. I quote exactly what I am responding to and address what it actually says. No further responses? Fine by me. I see where you are coming from. As if virtually all the universalists in this discussion are not doing exactly that. I see folks quoting anything, everything they can find online regardless of the lack of qualifications of the source. If it supports universalism and is online, it has been or sooner or later it will be quoted here. I see one 'book" "Hope Beyond Hell" being linked and quoted here over and over. The writer, I will not give him the respect of calling him an author, has zero qualifications in Hebrew, Greek or any other relevant field.
.....On the other hand I quote only accredited scholars and references and directly from actual historical sources not second or third hand quotes. So do what you will that will not deter me from pointing out errors which you may post.

Who did the 12 follow, Jesus or those (Pharisees, Sadducees & scribes) with "qualifications"?

"Jesus warned His disciples to “watch out and beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and the Sadducees,” which was their false teaching (Matt. 16:6,12)."

The Pharisees taught everlasting torments.

"Not giving heed to Jewish myths, and commandments of men, that turn from the truth." (Titus 1:14). Jesus said re the Pharisees: "...in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the commandments of men." (Mt.15:8-9)

"But woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye shut up the kingdom of heaven against men: for ye neither go in yourselves, neither suffer ye them that are entering to go in." (Matthew 23:13)

"Woe to you, blind guides! You say, 'If anyone swears by the temple, it means nothing; but if anyone swears by the gold of the temple, he is bound by his oath.'" (Matthew 23:16)

"Woe to you experts in the law! For you have taken away the key to knowledge. You yourselves have not entered, and you have hindered those who were entering." (Luke 11:52)

Jeremiah 8:8 "How can you say, 'We are wise, And the law of the LORD is with us'? But behold, the lying pen of the scribes Has made it into a lie. 9 "The wise men are put to shame, They are dismayed and caught; Behold, they have rejected the word of the LORD..."

Student: What is a theological cemetery?
MASTER: An institution of higher learning, approved of men.
Student: What's buried there?
Master: The truth of God.

1 Timothy 4:1 "Now the spirit is saying explicitly, that in subsequent eras some will be withdrawing from the faith, giving heed to deceiving spirits and the teachings of demons, 2 in the hypocrisy of false expressions, their own conscience having been cauterized;"
10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe. 11 These things command and teach.

1 Corinthians 1:18 Let no man deceive himself. If any man among you seemeth to be wise in this world, let him become a fool, that he may be wise.
19 For it is written, I will destroy the wisdom of the wise, and will bring to nothing the understanding of the prudent.
20 Where is the wise? where is the scribe? where is the disputer of this world? hath not God made foolish the wisdom of this world?
1 Corinthians 1:27 But God chose the foolish things of the world to shame the wise; God chose the weak things of the world to shame the strong.

Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me. (Jn.14:6)

Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth (Jn.16:13a)

https://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf

"The Third Law of Theology: For every theologian there is an equal and opposite theologian."
 
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Der Alte

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Who did the 12 follow, Jesus or those (Pharisees, Sadducees & scribes) with "qualifications"?
Just as irrelevant now as it was the first few times you posted it. You keep quoting tentmakers and hope beyond hell over and over as if you think they have some kind of qualifications. If one wants to discuss the Bible, Hebrew and Greek etc. then either they or the people who they quote should be qualified in those languages. Without such qualifications one might as well quote a comic book.
.....Jesus authored the Bible so He is definitely qualified but unfortunately He isn't here right now to tell us what the Bible really says when someone says it means one thing and someone else says it means something different.
Same ol' copy/paste from tentmakers deleted again.
 
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ClementofA

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You keep quoting tentmakers and hope beyond hell over and over

I've seldom quoted the book. You may have quoted it more than i have.

The book is a collection of info based on or directly quoted from learned men and scholars.

One doesn't need 10 PHD's to collect stuff. So you're comments re the author are not pertinent. You are no scholar yet manage to collect a few writings yourself. So, pot calling the kettle black.

"The Third Law of Theology: For every theologian there is an equal and opposite theologian."

as if you think they have some kind of qualifications. If one wants to discuss the Bible, Hebrew and Greek etc. then either they or the people who they quote should be qualified in those languages. Without such qualifications one might as well quote a comic book.

"The Third Law of Theology: For every theologian there is an equal and opposite theologian."

Your "qualified" men following the Douay & KJV traditions of men of "the church" of the Inquisitions, Crusades & dark ages have been caught in a deception (Jer.8:8-9):

Considering, then, that the Greek word aionios has a range of meanings, biased men should not have rendered the word in Mt.25:46 by their theological opinions as "everlasting". Thus they did not translate the word, but interpreted it. OTOH the versions with age-lasting, eonian & the like gave faithful translations & left the interpreting up to the readers as to what specific meaning within the "range of meanings" the word holds in any specific context. What biased scholars after the Douay & KJV traditions of the dark ages "church" have done is change the words of Scriptures to their own opinions, which is shameful.

Jeremiah 8:8 "How can you say, 'We are wise, And the law of the LORD is with us'? But behold, the lying pen of the scribes Has made it into a lie.
9 "The wise men are put to shame, They are dismayed and caught; Behold, they have rejected the word of the LORD..."



.....Jesus authored the Bible so He is definitely qualified but unfortunately He isn't here right now to tell us what the Bible really says when someone says it means one thing and someone else says it means something different.

1 John 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.

Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me. (Jn.14:6)

Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth (Jn.16:13a)

1 Corinthians 2:9 But as it is written, Eye hath not seen, nor ear heard, neither have entered into the heart of man, the things which God hath prepared for them that love him.

10 But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit: for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God. 11 For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God. 12 Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God. 13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.

14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned. 15 But he that is spiritual judgeth all things, yet he himself is judged of no man. 16 For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ.

https://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf
 
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Der Alte

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This point that ClementofA has made [multiple] times is what seems to be getting ignored. It's happened with the OT word "olam" as well (used in Jonah, for one example)---even Strongs has ignored the meaning of "long duration" and leapt to the meaning of "forever". We all know Jonah wasn't in the belly of a whale forever.
What CA has said and which you are touting has been ignored because it has been refuted multiple times. You both are relying on Strong's concordance, which OBTW is not a lexicon, and which has been found to have about 15,000 errors and omissions
Online Bible FAQ
Q:The Online Bible Strongs is not the same as my Exhaustive Strongs Concordance. Why is that?
A: We used the Strong's system but the actual Greek and Hebrew to implement the numbers. By doing this we corrected about 15000 errors in the Strong's concordance.
http://www.onlinebible.net/faqs.html
Rebuilding Strong’s time-honored concordance from the ground up, biblical research experts John Kohlenberger and James Swanson have achieved unprecedented accuracy and clarity. Longstanding errors have been corrected. Omissions filled in. Word studies simplified. Thoroughness and ease of use have been united and maximized.
Zondervan
On the other hand I have quoted from the most highly respected lexicons Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, Danker Greek lexicon and Brown, Driver, Briggs Hebrew lexicon, In two posts I quoted from nine (9) Greek languages sources. These sources clearly show that Olam and Aionios do in fact have the meaning eternal.
.....What about Jonah in the fish, not whale. Let me see he was inside a sea creature frightened to death it probably did seem like an eternity to him. A person in a panic is not a good source for the correct definition of a word.
.....Guess what words are used hyperbolically? There were real foxes, stones, and thunder at the time of Jesus. Peter was not actually a stone when Jesus called him one. Herod was not actually a fox, when Jesus called him one. James and John were not actually sons of thunder when Jesus called them that. That is hyperbole. The fact that Jesus used the words as hyperbole did not change the primary meaning.
.....For credible Greek languages sources on the meaning of aionios see my [post #1093] And here is the complete definition of Olam from the Theological Wordbook of the old Testament.

1631a II עלם ('ôlam) forever, ever, everlasting, evermore, perpetual, old, ancient, world, etc. (RSV similar in general, but substitutes "always" for "in the world" in Ps 73:12 and "eternity" for "world" in Ecc 3:11.) Probably derived from 'a/am I, "to hide," thus pointing to what is hidden in the distant future or in the distant past. The Ugaritic cognate is 'Im, "eternity."
Though 'Olam is used more than three hundred times to indicate indefinite continuance into the very distant future, the meaning of the word is not confined to the future. There are at least twenty instances where it clearly refers to the past. Such usages generally point to something that seems long ago, but rarely if ever refer to a limitless past. Thus in Deut 32:7 and Job 22:15 it may refer to the time of one's elders. In Prov 22:28; 23:10; Jer 6:16; 18:15; 28:8 it points back somewhat farther. In Isa 58:12, 61:4; Mic 7:14; Mal 3:4, and in the Aramaic of Ezr 4:15, 19 it clearly refers to the time just before the exile. In I Sam 27:8, in Isa 51:9 and 63:9, 11 and perhaps Ezk 36:2, it refers to the events of the exodus from Egypt. In Gen 6:4 it points to the time shortly before the flood. None of these past references has in it the idea of endlessness or limitlessness, but each points to a time long before the immediate knowledge of those living. In Isa 64:3 the KJV translates the word "beginning of the world." In Ps 73:12 and Eccl 3:11 it is translated "world," suggesting the beginning of a usage that developed greatly in post biblical times.
Jenni holds that its basic meaning "most distant times" can refer to either the remote past or to the future or to both as due to the fact that it does not occur independently (as a subject or as an object) but only in connection with prepositions indicating direction (mm "since," 'ad "until," l "up to") or as an adverbial accusative of direction or finally as the modifying genitive in the construct relationship. In the latter instance 'Olam can express by itself the whole range of meanings denoted by all the prepositions "since, until, to the most distant time"; i.e. it assumes the meaning "(unlimited, incalculable) continuance, eternity." (THAT II, p. 230) J. Barr (Biblical Words for Time (21969), p. 73) says, "We might therefore best state the "basic meaning" as a kind of range between 'remotest time' and 'perpetuity' ". But as shown above it is sometimes used of a not-so-remote past. For the meaning of the word in its attributive use we should note the designation of the LORD as 'el 'Olam, "The Eternal God" (Gen 21:33).
The LXX generally translates 'Olam by aion which has essentially the same range of meaning. That neither the Hebrew nor the Greek word in itself contains the idea of endlessness is shown both by the fact that they sometimes refer to events or conditions that occurred at a definite point in the past, and also by the fact that sometimes it is thought desirable to repeat the word, not merely saying "forever," but "forever and ever."
Both words came to be used to refer to a long age or period—an idea that is sometimes expressed in English by "world." Post biblical Jewish writings refer to the present world of toil as ha'Olam hazzeh and to the world to come as ha'Olam habba'.
'ad (q.v.) has substantially the same range of meaning as 'Olam (usually long continuance into the future, but cf. Job 20:4).
Bibliography: Snaith, Norman H., "Time in the Old Testament," in Promise and Fulfillment, Essays Presented to Professor S. H. Hooke, ed. F. F. Bruce, Edinburgh: Clark, 1963, pp. 175-86. Jenni, E., "Das wort 'olam im AT," Diss, Theol. Basel 1953 ( ZAW 64:197-248; 65:1-35).


 
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Der Alte

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I've seldom quoted the book. You may have quoted it more than i have.
...
tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell
This is you "not" quoting hope beyond hell. In every post.
 
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mkgal1

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Invisible ink?
Yes.....it's the secret manuscript you have that apparently lets you know when certain passages that contain the translated word "forever" don't actually mean "forever"---leaving out, of course, any passage that relates to eternal punishment.
 
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Der Alte

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Yes.....it's the secret manuscript you have that apparently lets you know when certain passages that contain the translated word "forever" don't actually mean "forever"---leaving out, of course, any passage that relates to eternal punishment.
Wrong again. That is what universalists do, seek out and quote anything, anywhere, by anybody regardless of their lack of qualifications and quote them as the end all, be all authority on the Bible. Did you happen to notice that I quote lexical and grammatical evidence, e.g. lexicons and grammars and historical evidence e.g. early church fathers and what do I see in response? Random copy/pastes from websites and books by people with zero qualifications. Have you even bothered to read the sources I have quoted?
.....Do you know what hyperbole means? I have explained it several times. The universalist argument is, if the word aionios e.g. is used a few times for something which cannot be eternal such as "eternal hills" then it must not mean eternal anywhere in any situation. That is a lexical fallacy "the one meaning fallacy that a Hebrew or Greek word has only one meaning and that meaning is used throughout the Bible. It does not matter what any lexicon or historical source says. Universlists are the only Bible experts.
 
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ClementofA

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This is you "not" quoting hope beyond hell. In every post.

Then perhaps you understand that a url link is not the same as a quote.

Who on earth would think otherwise?

If English was their first language.
 
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Silmarien

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An interesting argument I just ran into by David Bentley Hart (or his pet dog, I suppose) from a Universalist perspective:

“But what’s a person?” Roland suddenly barked. “What’s a personal identity except a whole history of associations, loves, memories, attachments . . . ? If those are removed, if one’s loves are lost or converted into indifference, or even into satisfaction at the torment of those once loved . . . or even just forgetfulness, well . . . what’s saved? Surely someone else—something else—altogether: a spiritual anonymity . . . a vapid spark of pure intellection . . . the residue of a soul reduced to no one. Have you read any Michel de Certeau?”

“Yes,” I said, surprised. “I didn’t know you had.”

“Oh yes,” he said blandly, “he has quite a canine following. Especially among spaniels, because of their special tradition of interpretatio obliqua. But I was just thinking of that lovely line of his . . . what is it? ‘The I is the place of another?’ Something like that. Well there’s the point: as a living person in communion with a world, my spiritual identity is constituted by all my encounters, memories, and affinities, intimate or remote. I am others. So how could I truly be in heaven when those I love are in hell? Wouldn’t I—the person I am—also be in hell with them? As Abraham Lincoln said about heaven, it’s everyone or no one. Not merely a warm sentiment: a logical maxim.”

I think there is a very strong point here. It reminds me of some of the stuff I've seen by John Donne. "No man is an island, entire of itself... any man's death diminishes me, because I am involved in mankind; and therefore never send to know for whom the bell tolls; it tolls for thee."

I'm not really a Universalist. I'm mostly just still exploring Christianity's claims in general, but... this is kind of a big deal. I'm not really sure how to get around the apparent fact that if Universalism fails, the concept of salvation becomes incoherent and Christianity as a whole comes tumbling down with it.
 
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ClementofA

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On the other hand I have quoted from the most highly respected lexicons Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, Danker Greek lexicon and Brown, Driver, Briggs Hebrew lexicon, In two posts I quoted from nine (9) Greek languages sources. These sources clearly show that Olam and Aionios do in fact have the meaning eternal.

The full truth is that they, and many other learned & scholarly sources, in fact have the meaning of not only eternal, but also of other definitions harmonious with non eternal finite time periods that end. Therefore the words are ambiguous. Context helps decide the meaning in any instance.

In regards to any who think the words should be "eternal" at Matthew 25:46 or Daniel 12:2, what evidence do they give that that is the correct rendering in such contexts, rather than a finite duration? Any at all? Blindly accepting their word is akin to kissing the ring of an infallible leader.

"The Third Law of Theology: For every theologian there is an equal and opposite theologian."

1 John 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.



.....What about Jonah in the fish, not whale. Let me see he was inside a sea creature frightened to death it probably did seem like an eternity to him. A person in a panic is not a good source for the correct definition of a word.
...

Sorry, but that might be the most lame argument i've ever heard.

https://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf
 
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Quid est Veritas?

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An interesting argument I just ran into by David Bentley Hart (or his pet dog, I suppose) from a Universalist perspective:



I think there is a very strong point here. It reminds me of some of the stuff I've seen by John Donne. "No man is an island, entire of itself... any man's death diminishes me, because I am involved in mankind; and therefore never send to know for whom the bell tolls; it tolls for thee."

I'm not really a Universalist. I'm mostly just still exploring Christianity's claims in general, but... this is kind of a big deal. I'm not really sure how to get around the apparent fact that if Universalism fails, the concept of salvation becomes incoherent and Christianity as a whole comes tumbling down with it.

This line of John Donne is often misunderstood. It comes from Meditation XVII of his Devotions upon emergent occassions.

It is a call for man to trust to God. The whole work is regarding recovery from an illness and is predicated on the two greatest commandments, to love God and to Love thy neighbour. The idea being that they are associated ideals, hence everything that happens to anyone touches me also. The Meditation ends where Donne says that perhaps someone else's misfortune will do you good.

Here is the next part of the Meditation that is so often ommited:

"Neither can we call this a begging of misery, or a borrowing of misery, as though we were not miserable enough of ourselves, but must fetch in more from the next house, in taking upon us the misery of our neighbours. Truly it were an excusable covetousness if we did, for affliction is a treasure, and scarce any man hath enough of it. No man hath affliction enough that is not matured and ripened by it, and made fit for God by that affliction. If a man carry treasure in bullion, or in a wedge of gold, and have none coined into current money, his treasure will not defray him as he travels. Tribulation is treasure in the nature of it, but it is not current money in the use of it, except we get nearer and nearer our home, heaven, by it. Another man may be sick too, and sick to death, and this affliction may lie in his bowels, as gold in a mine, and be of no use to him; but this bell, that tells me of his affliction, digs out and applies that gold to me: if by this consideration of another's danger I take mine own into contemplation, and so secure myself, by making my recourse to my God, who is our only security."

I myself don't see universalism here applied or intimated.



To the thread in general (blind post):
I am not a universalist. To me, universalism fails in that it renders all our moral struggles moot and the whole idea of Sin and Justice irrelevant. The answer lies in the nature of our existence in my opinion, although I will be first to admit I do not grasp it all. For the OT speaks of nephesh and ruach, Soul and Spirit roughly though imperfectly, with the nephesh being both living or dead. Likewise we are taught of New Life or eternal life in the NT, yet it seems not that the others ceases in entirety if there is a hell. Nephesh is always coupled to ruach and ruach or the 'breath' that God blows into beings, seems to act as an animating principle.
Here is where the 'dead-in-Christ' of Paul starts to make sense to me. For this is the ruach or spirit grafted onto Christ; our Spirit survives only in Christ as it is derived from God, His breath, not our own per se. So if someone denies God, rejects Him, he rejects his own animating principle, his own existence and is rendered 'dead' - perhaps dead nephesh without ruach to bring it life, a dead soul.
At the Parousia, our ruach is given a new body and reunited to our nephesh; we become a complete being, composite as we are by necessity. Those that denied God, denied their own animating principle, as such have nothing to reunite to their nephesh/soul. They are thus 'dead nephesh' and can thus be swept away as they had chosen to deny the only thing that can secure life as such. Ruach cannot exist on its own, it requires something for it to inhabit/animate, so by denying Jesus, denying being in Christ, you deny it this opportunity. Without the full complement of our existence, we cannot really be said to exist anymore or at least not in like manner.

Back to Silmarien's post:
It is an interesting quandary you posit. It reminds me of Buddhist thinking, how the Self consists of Khandas, 'heaps' of ideas and feelings constantly changing and absorbing or losing elements from what is around us and other people we meet.
I have no problem seeing man as a composite being, consisting of Soul, Spirit, Body, Mind (conscious and subconscious) etc. with elements absorbed from everyone we meet into our conceptions. There is however a central element, somehow connected to this superficial existential flux, that seems to be the active participant. This is impacted, forged or changed by our actions and the events of our lives and I think in this manner it would carry forth elements of others. I do not see why it need carry the entirety of them along though, for all are compositions of various elements and perhaps we merely have taken parts thereof.
The world is a crucible forging sons of God and I fail to see why taking specks of gold from others necessitates appropriating the dross as well.
 
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ClementofA

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To the thread in general (blind post):
I am not a universalist. To me, universalism fails in that it renders all our moral struggles moot and the whole idea of Sin and Justice irrelevant.

That is a common misunderstanding or misrepresentation of universalism.

Early Church Father Christians, for example, who embraced the Scriptural teaching of all being eventually saved, did not see things that way:

The Church Fathers on Universalism
 
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Quid est Veritas?

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That is a common misunderstanding or misrepresentation of universalism.

Early Church Father Christians, for example, who embraced the Scriptural teaching of all being eventually saved, did not see things that way:

The Church Fathers on Universalism
I am sorry, but that is shameless quote-mining and taking out of context in that website.

It even quotes Augustine and Ambrose of Milan, both most assuredly not universalists, as if they concur by the simple fact of ommiting his rebuttal in Augustine's case or misrepresenting Ambrose who was speaking of something else entirely. Augustine was explaining incorrect views and then going on to show why it is so, but the latter is barefacedly left out and Ambrose is speaking on Paul's dead-in-Christ and the Resurrection at the Parousia, not universalism.

Others like Jerome, Clement and Basil seem to be explaining others' views as in "some say"; not their own. As far as I know they are all perfectly orthodox and therefore unlikely to be universalists in a Church that has historically considered it heresy.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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An interesting argument I just ran into by David Bentley Hart (or his pet dog, I suppose) from a Universalist perspective:



I think there is a very strong point here. It reminds me of some of the stuff I've seen by John Donne. "No man is an island, entire of itself... any man's death diminishes me, because I am involved in mankind; and therefore never send to know for whom the bell tolls; it tolls for thee."

I'm not really a Universalist. I'm mostly just still exploring Christianity's claims in general, but... this is kind of a big deal. I'm not really sure how to get around the apparent fact that if Universalism fails, the concept of salvation becomes incoherent and Christianity as a whole comes tumbling down with it.

...personally, I can't foresee how the ultimate demise in the long term of Nero, Hitler, Mao, Stalin, or Pol Pot (or anyone like them) will diminish me in the presence of Christ for eternity. I'm not saying this as a criticism, but as a point of philosophical and theological contemplation.

Peace,
2PhiloVoid
 
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Der Alte

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Then perhaps you understand that a url link is not the same as a quote.
Who on earth would think otherwise?
If English was their first language.
I understand that a quote is not exactly the same thing as posting a link. But both serve the same purpose, i.e. something that you think supports your argument that you want others to read.
 
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The full truth is that they, and many other learned & scholarly sources, in fact have the meaning of not only eternal, but also of other definitions harmonious with non eternal finite time periods that end. Therefore the words are ambiguous. Context helps decide the meaning in any instance.
And had you bothered to actually read those sources you would have seen how real scholars determine where the word "aionios" should be translated "eternal" etc. and where it is used hyperbolically. In support of their translations they provide historical evidence.
.....Unlike universlists, translation is not done based on personal assumptions/presuppositions. The words are only ambiguous to those who refuse to consult accredited language resources but rely solely on online books written by people with zero qualifications in Hebrew, Greek or any other relevant field, e.g. Hope Beyond Hell.

In regards to any who think the words should be "eternal" at Matthew 25:46 or Daniel 12:2, what evidence do they give that that is the correct rendering in such contexts, rather than a finite duration?
Really very simple. I speak more than one language. When I speak in another language I depend on the meaning that a native speaker assigns to a word. So how did the language scholars with years of study determine that "aionios" means "eternal?" They consult ancient writings and see how writers at or near the time of the writing of the NT understood the word. Had you bothered even once to read the sources I posted you would know this. I did what they did, I posted several quotes from the ECF. How did the ECF use the word "aionios?" See my [post #1111] this thread.

–• 1917 JPS Daniel 12:2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to reproaches and everlasting abhorrence.
–• The Encyclical Epistle of the Church at Smyrna Concerning the Martyrdom of the Holy Polycarp
Chap XI But again the proconsul said to him, “I will cause thee to be consumed by fire, seeing thou despisest the wild beasts, if thou wilt not repent.” But Polycarp said, “Thou threatenest me with fire which burneth for an hour, and after a little is extinguished, but art ignorant of the fire of the coming judgment and of eternal punishment, reserved for the ungodly. But why tarriest thou? Bring forth what thou wilt.”
• Tertullian [a.d. 145-220] VI. Ad Nationes. Book I.
Chap VII O ye heathen; who have and deserve our pity, behold, we set before you the promise which our sacred system offers. It guarantees eternal life to such as follow and observe it; on the other hand, it threatens with the eternal punishment of an unending fire those who are profane and hostile; while to both classes alike is preached a resurrection from the dead.
• Hippolytus [A.D. 170-236] The Extant Works and Fragments Part II
2….and to the lovers of iniquity shall be given eternal punishment. And the fire which is un-quenchable and without end awaits these latter, and a certain fiery worm which dieth not, and which does not waste the body, but continues bursting forth from the body with unending pain. No sleep will give them rest; no night will soothe them; no death will deliver them from punishment; no voice of interceding friends will profit them.
• Cyprian. [A.D. 200-258.] Treatise V.
24. What hath pride profited us, or what good hath the boasting of riches done us? All those things are passed away like a shadow.” (Wisdom of Solomon 5:1-9) The pain of punishment will then be without the fruit of penitence; weeping will be useless, and prayer ineffectual. Too late they will believe in eternal punishment who would not believe in eternal life.
Any at all? Blindly accepting their word is akin to kissing the ring of an infallible leader.
Just blew this false accusation out of the water, didn't I.
"The Third Law of Theology: For every theologian there is an equal and opposite theologian."
The first law of theology is "Everybody with a Strong's thinks they are a Hebrew and Greek expert."
Sorry, but that might be the most lame argument i've ever heard.
And this is the lamest objection I've ever heard. Does anyone think that a person who is panicking, on the verge of dying, is going to speak rationally and logically? Even so one hyperbolical use of a word does not determine its inherent meaning.
 
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