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two covenants

sparow

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A man must be "born from above" or "born again" in order to see the kingdom of G-d. The word "vision" means explicitly "to see"; John had a vision in the book of revelation. Certain things were revealed to John. We know the word "born" means to be given life. Nicodemus the Pharisee needed to be given life from above or to be given life again. Can a man enter into his mother's womb the second time to be born again? Yes indeed! A man must be born of water and spirit. The flesh give birth to flesh; the spirit gives birth to spirit. Those born of the spirit are like the wind, you hear the sound but you do now know where they come from or where they are going. In order to enter the kingdom of G-d you must born of flesh and spirit. Adam entered that beautiful garden in Eden, the tree of life was in the middle of the garden.Yeshua ascended into the cloud. Adam became a living soul; Adam was given life from the spirit or "breath of life", then G-d placed him in the garden (Genesis 2:8). Adam after he was given the breath of life he could ENTER the kingdom or "garden" of G-d.


Jesus did not exactly give an answer instead He offers a puzzle, but He did say it is not necessary to know: John 3:7 (ASV)
7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born anew.

Jesus then talks about his example; when was Jesus born anew; was it to do with Mary's womb or to do with His baptism with water and with the Holy Spirit, or was it His resurrection from the dead?
 
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Mercy74

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Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam...




JLB
Sin was in the world before the law was given. Death reigned from Adam until Moses although Moses is known as the lawgiver. Sin is not imputed or counted against any man's account where there is no law enforcement. God is not mocked! Although sin was not imputed; death still reigned in their mortal bodies. Sin entered this world long before Moses was born.
 
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Mercy74

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Jesus did not exactly give an answer instead He offers a puzzle, but He did say it is not necessary to know: John 3:7 (ASV)
7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born anew.

Jesus then talks about his example; when was Jesus born anew; was it to do with Mary's womb or to do with His baptism with water and with the Holy Spirit, or was it His resurrection from the dead?
Yeshua did give Nicodemus the Pharisee an answer; John 3:5 Comple Jewish Bible
 
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pasifika

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The Gospel was first believed by Abraham:

[Gal 3:6-9 NASB] 6 Even so Abraham BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS RECKONED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS. 7 Therefore, be sure that it is those who are of faith who are sons of Abraham. 8 The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, [saying,] "ALL THE NATIONS WILL BE BLESSED IN YOU." 9 So then those who are of faith are blessed with Abraham, the believer.​

God made him righteous for believing the gospel, and when we believe the gospel we are considered descendants and heirs according to the promise God gave Abraham. Our faiht doesn't qualify us for righteousness so much as it qualifies us as a descendant, and descendants inherit righteousness.
Hello, Faith is the precursor of being righteous before God...so just as God credited Righteousness to Abraham through his faith, but also those who believed in God will also God credited Righteousness to them.... Romans 4:21-24...this in reference to Abraham...." being fully persuaded that God had the power to do what He had promised. This is why " it was credited to him as righteousness". The words "it was credited to him" we're Not written for him alone, but also for us, to whom God will credit righteousness for us who believe in Him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead...
 
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JLB777

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Sin was in the world before the law was given. Death reigned from Adam until Moses although Moses is known as the lawgiver. Sin is not imputed or counted against any man's account where there is no law enforcement. God is not mocked! Although sin was not imputed; death still reigned in their mortal bodies. Sin entered this world long before Moses was born.


Agreed.

My point was to show that the commandments were part of the covenant keeping with the Lord, 430 years before the law of Moses was added.


Which means, when the law of Moses was abolished, the commandments remained as part of the Covenant, which was refreshed and became the new covenant.



JLB
 
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Mercy74

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The law is not of faith.
The way of the law; the man that obeys the law has life. The wages of sin is

Yet the law is not of faith, but “the man who does them shall live by them.” Galatians 3:12




JLB
Agreed.

My point was to show that the commandments were part of the covenant keeping with the Lord, 430 years before the law of Moses was added.


Which means, when the law of Moses was abolished, the commandments remained as part of the Covenant, which was refreshed and became the new covenant.



JLB
The law was never abolished.
 
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Gup20

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The law was never abolished.
There is a righteousness based on faith, and another kind of righteousness based on Law. Jesus fulfilled the Law and was declared righteous. This allowed him to give up that righteousness and transfer it to Abraham. Subsequently, all who are considered descendants of Abraham inherit that righteousness. There will be more people who are considered descendants because they have the same faith in the gospel of Jesus Christ than there will be physical descendants.
 
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JLB777

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The law was never abolished.

For He Himself is our peace, who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of separation, having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace, Ephesians 2:14-15


  • having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances,

The of Moses is what divided Jew from Gentile.



Under the law of Moses, could uncircumcised Gentiles keep the Passover?



There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
Galatians 3:28



The law of Moses was always temporary, having been added to the Covenant, until the Seed should come.






JLB
 
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Gup20

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For He Himself is our peace, who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of separation, having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace, Ephesians 2:14-15


  • having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances,

The of Moses is what divided Jew from Gentile.



Under the law of Moses, could uncircumcised Gentiles keep the Passover?



There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
Galatians 3:28



The law of Moses was always temporary, having been added to the Covenant, until the Seed should come.






JLB
I agree... it was the enmity that was abolished, not the law itself.

Yet the purpose of The Law is to establish one as righteous, and those who are of faith establish their righteousness by grace through their faith as an inheritance, and not as something earned.

Galatians 3:21-22 (NASB) 21 Is the Law then contrary to the promises of God? May it never be! For if a law had been given which was able to impart life, then righteousness would indeed have been based on law. 22 But the Scripture has shut up everyone under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.

Romans 10:3-11 (NASB) 3 For not knowing about God’s righteousness and seeking to establish their own, they did not subject themselves to the righteousness of God. 4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes. 5 For Moses writes that the man who practices the righteousness which is based on law shall live by that righteousness. 6 But the righteousness based on faith speaks as follows: "DO NOT SAY IN YOUR HEART, ‘WHO WILL ASCEND INTO HEAVEN?’ (that is, to bring Christ down), 7 or ‘WHO WILL DESCEND INTO THE ABYSS?’ (that is, to bring Christ up from the dead)." 8 But what does it say? "THE WORD IS NEAR YOU, IN YOUR MOUTH AND IN YOUR HEART"--that is, the word of faith which we are preaching, 9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation. 11 For the Scripture says, "WHOEVER BELIEVES IN HIM WILL NOT BE DISAPPOINTED."
 
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JLB777

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I agree... it was the enmity that was abolished, not the law itself.


For He Himself is our peace, who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of separation, having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace, Ephesians 2:14-15

The only way for peace between Jew and Gentile to come, is for the source of enmity to be removed... which is the law of commandments that were contained in ordinances to be abolished in His flesh, having been nailed to the cross and taken out of the way.


And you, being dead in your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He has made alive together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses, having wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.
Colossians 2:13-14



The law was temporarily added to the Covenant.


What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator.
Galatians 3:19



  • What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come...


By saying “until” the Holy Spirit is indicating the law was temporary.


Has the Seed come and fulfilled the law?


Yes or No?




JLB
 
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Gup20

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Yes, that seed has come - it was Jesus. What is enmity between two men (Jew & Gentile) compared to enmity between God and man? Christ and his righteousness tore down the wall of separation between God and man.

[Jhn 17:22-23 NASB] 22 "The glory which You have given Me I have given to them, that they may be one, just as We are one; 23 I in them and You in Me, that they may be perfected in unity, so that the world may know that You sent Me, and loved them, even as You have loved Me.​
 
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Mercy74

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We must have a common understanding about the law or principle of faith, to better understand the writings of the New Testament.


“Faith alone” is a misnomer, which James says “faith by itself” is dead.


Thus also faith by itself, if it does not have works, is dead.
But someone will say, “You have faith, and I have works.” Show me your faith without your works, and I will show you my faith by my works. You believe that there is one God. You do well. Even the demons believe—and tremble! But do you want to know, O foolish man, that faith without works is dead? Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?
James 2:17-21


The key in this passage is found in verse 21 -


Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?


Not the works of the law
Not good works
Not work that earns a wage

But the work or action of obedience.


Faith without this corresponding act of obedience is dead, being incomplete and unable to function to produce the intended Divine result.


This principle is found throughput the scriptures and especially in the book of Romans, where it begins and ends with the phrase “the obedience of faith”.


But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith: Romans 26:16 KJV


Faith must have this “work” or action of obedience, or it is dead, dormant, incomplete, and unable to function, just as a body without a spirit is incomplete.


Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made (complete) perfect? James 2:22


For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also. James 2:26



JLB
Why was Abraham told to offer his son on the altar as a burnt offering?
 
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Mercy74

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The law is not of faith.


Yet the law is not of faith, but “the man who does them shall live by them.” Galatians 3:12




JLB
The law is not of faith; but the contrary. What does "contrary" mean?
 
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Mercy74

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There is a righteousness based on faith, and another kind of righteousness based on Law. Jesus fulfilled the Law and was declared righteous. This allowed him to give up that righteousness and transfer it to Abraham. Subsequently, all who are considered descendants of Abraham inherit that righteousness. There will be more people who are considered descendants because they have the same faith in the gospel of Jesus Christ than there will be physical descendants.
Yeshua never gave up his righteousness
 
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Mercy74

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For He Himself is our peace, who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of separation, having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace, Ephesians 2:14-15


  • having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances,

The of Moses is what divided Jew from Gentile.



Under the law of Moses, could uncircumcised Gentiles keep the Passover?



There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
Galatians 3:28



The law of Moses was always temporary, having been added to the Covenant, until the Seed should come.






JLB
What are ordinances?
 
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Mercy74

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For He Himself is our peace, who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of separation, having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace, Ephesians 2:14-15

The only way for peace between Jew and Gentile to come, is for the source of enmity to be removed... which is the law of commandments that were contained in ordinances to be abolished in His flesh, having been nailed to the cross and taken out of the way.


And you, being dead in your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He has made alive together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses, having wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.
Colossians 2:13-14



The law was temporarily added to the Covenant.


What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator.
Galatians 3:19



  • What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come...


By saying “until” the Holy Spirit is indicating the law was temporary.


Has the Seed come and fulfilled the law?


Yes or No?




JLB
Roman law was the primary law that governed the land at the time of Christ. The Romans had often handwritten the charges against the criminal on the cross.. They wrote "King of Jews" which is not a crime. The Jews were often persecuted by the Romans for violating ordinances not the law! The law of commandments CONTAINED in ordinances. They CONTAINED the law of commandments.
 
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yeshuaslavejeff

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The law is not of faith; but the contrary. What does "contrary" mean?
Do you mean "trusting the law" as if it could do something is not of faith?

Yahweh's purpose with Torah , as written, is and was to bring people to Christ, to light up their path, to keep them in the right way until faith and/or grace appeared, and so forth.

I think the warning in Galatians is against "trusting" in Torah to produce salvation , is the warning to avoid because of its conseqences.
 
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Mercy74

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Do you mean "trusting the law" as if it could do something is not of faith?

Yahweh's purpose with Torah , as written, is and was to bring people to Christ, to light up their path, to keep them in the right way until faith and/or grace appeared, and so forth.

I think the warning in Galatians is against "trusting" in Torah to produce salvation , is the warning to avoid because of its conseqences.
The law is not based on faith; but faith is based in the law. Do not worship idols is evidence of genuine faith.
 
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Mercy74

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Where was that ? Can you print out the verses with the context ?
YHWH always have a reason for telling us to do something. If you do not know the reason you may not wish to perform it until you do. Abraham did not harm his son Isaac because he knew that offering up Isaac on the altar was an act of worship (Genesis 22:5). Why did YHWH tell Abraham to perform this particular act of worship?
 
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