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True Justification, works of the Law of Moses, & Conditional Security

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stuart lawrence

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You said he kept the law blamelessly. The law includes not blaspheming God and not sinning of which Paul did.


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Jason, you are clinging at straws now. Which law do you break if you blaspheme, take the lords name in vain. The legalistic law or the moral law. You see, you are stumped you have no answer to my question in relation to gal 3:10&11 have you.
So it has to be, try and think of anything to write, rather than admit your error. Sorry, but that is the truth.
Paul could not faultlessly obey the moral law, ie: blaspheming, coveting etc, but he could faultlessly obey the legalistic law which you say is the only law being referred to in Gal3:10&11
 
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Jason, you are clinging at straws now. Which law do you break if you blaspheme, take the lords name in vain. The legalistic law or the moral law. You see, you are stumped you have no answer to my question in relation to gal 3:10&11 have you.
So it has to be, try and think of anything to write, rather than admit your error. Sorry, but that is the truth.
Paul could not faultlessly obey the moral law, ie: blaspheming, coveting etc, but he could faultlessly obey the legalistic law which you say is the only law being referred to in Gal3:10&11

No. The Bible has homonyms in it. A word can have several different meanings based on the context. Galatians is dealing with the problem of circumcision and those who were trying to be justified by the Law of Moses alone apart from a Savior. This was classic Works Salvationism. The word "law" in Galatians and Romans is speaking about the Law of Moses or the Law under the Old Covenant is no longer in effect. Meaning, the ceremonial laws and judicial laws that have not been carried over into the New Covenant. Hence, why Paul mentions "circumcision" as being a problem several times in both Romans and Galatians.

In Philippians: Paul is talking about the word "law" in being blameless according to his Pharisee traditions. Yet, Paul was not blameless before God's Law. For both the Old Covenant Law and the New Covenant Law both condemn one in blaspheming and in remaining a sinner (Which is why we need Savior and need to repent of our sins). For he that confesses and forsakes their sin will have mercy (Proverbs 28:13).


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Do you think the holy spirit who dwells in a believer is powerless to convict them concerning such a thing as you have mentioned. Do you believe in the baptism of the holy spirit as you seem not to mention the holy spirits work much
Saul once had the Spirit of God, but the Lord left him. Why do you think that was the case?


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stuart lawrence

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No. The Bible has homonyms in it. A word can have several different meanings based on the context. Galatians is dealing with the problem of circumcision and those who were trying to be justified by the Law of Moses alone apart from a Savior. This was classic Works Salvationism. In Philippians: Paul is talking about the word "law" in being blameless according to his Pharisee traditions. Yet, Paul was not blameless before God's Law. For both the Old Covenant Law and the New Covenant Law both condemn one in blaspheming and in remaining a sinner (Which is why we need Savior and need to repent of our sins). For he that confesses and forsakes their sin will have mercy (Proverbs 28:13).


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But blaspheming I breaking the moral law, not the legalistic law. All you have is legalistic law plus moral law. Your explanation as to what Paul was addressing in Galatians is nothing to do with the point of disagreement. YOU say the only law being referred to in gal3:10&11 is not the moral law, therefore that only leaves the legalistic law, a law Paul said he faultlessly obeyed. I know you wont answer the question for you cannot, it proves your belief to be false. Paul cannot be cursed or not able to be justified by the law hw could perfectly obey, simple!
 
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stuart lawrence

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Saul once had the Spirit of God, but the Lord left him. Why do you think that was the case?


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I find it hard to fathom just how far away you are from understanding the new covenant.
You think Saul was born again as someone is under the new covenant? Come on jason
 
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Please show me where I actually stated the sins you have mentioned concerning a person dying of them with unrepentant sin. If you cannot show me where i stated that, a person who wishes to follow Gods laws and not sin will apologise for making false statements about me I have not made
No. I will apologize ONLY if you do not believe this. It does not make any sense to apologize for something that you believe.

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I find it hard to fathom just how far away you are from understanding the new covenant. You think Saul was born again as someone is under the new covenant? Come on jason
Well, I either missed the post, or you did not reply to my verses in regards to how the OT saint was born again.

But for your information the words "circumicised in heart" was just another way of saying "born again." It's why Jesus appeared to be surprised as to why Nicodemus should have known about this concept.

"Nicodemus answered and said unto him, How can these things be? Jesus answered and said unto him, Art thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things?" (John 3:9-10).

Anyways, here are two questions for you: How can a man be circumcised in heart? Do you not know that nobody who was not circumcised in heart could not enter the sanctuary?

"Thus saith the Lord GOD; No stranger, uncircumcised in heart, nor uncircumcised in flesh, shall enter into my sanctuary, of any stranger that is among the children of Israel." (Ezekiel 44:9).


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stuart lawrence

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Well, I either missed the post, or you did not reply to my verses in regards to how the OT saint was born again.

But for your information the words "circumicised in heart" was just another way of saying "born again." It's why Jesus appeared to be surprised as to why Nicodemus should have known about this concept (See John 3).

Anyways, here are two questions for you: How can a man be circumcised in heart? Do you not know that nobody who was not circumcised in heart could not enter the sanctuary?

"Thus saith the Lord GOD; No stranger, uncircumcised in heart, nor uncircumcised in flesh, shall enter into my sanctuary, of any stranger that is among the children of Israel." (Ezekiel 44:9).


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You missed the post where I replied to your assertion the ot believer was born again? It was long enough! I will copy paste it when I am on a computer
 
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stuart lawrence

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Well, I either missed the post, or you did not reply to my verses in regards to how the OT saint was born again.

But for your information the words "circumicised in heart" was just another way of saying "born again." It's why Jesus appeared to be surprised as to why Nicodemus should have known about this concept.

"Nicodemus answered and said unto him, How can these things be? Jesus answered and said unto him, Art thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things?" (John 3:9-10).

Anyways, here are two questions for you: How can a man be circumcised in heart? Do you not know that nobody who was not circumcised in heart could not enter the sanctuary?

"Thus saith the Lord GOD; No stranger, uncircumcised in heart, nor uncircumcised in flesh, shall enter into my sanctuary, of any stranger that is among the children of Israel." (Ezekiel 44:9).


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Question
In deut 30:6 when is Moses saying God will circumcise the isrealites hearts? (something you quoted to prove they were born again under the old covenant) At what point will this happen? I suggest you read the first five verses before responding
 
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In deut 30:6 when is Moses saying God will circumcise the isrealites hearts? (something you quoted to prove they were born again under the old covenant) At what point will this happen? I suggest you read the first five verses before responding

Uh, no. Nowhere does it state in the first 5 verses that it is a definition of verse 6. God is simply stating he will circumcise their hearts just as he will do so in Ezekiel 36:26-27.


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Don't dig yourself in deeper lol

I am merely asking the question, because we know that circumcision of the heart is spiritual thing and not a physical thing.


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Also, Jesus appeared to be surprised as to why Nicodemus should have known about this concept.

"Nicodemus answered and said unto him, How can these things be? Jesus answered and said unto him, Art thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things?" (John 3:9-10).

In other words, Nicodemus should have known about this concept of being regenerated spiritually from the Scriptures.


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stuart lawrence

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Uh, no. Nowhere does it state in the first 5 verses that it is a definition of verse 6. God is simply stating he will circumcise their hearts just as he will do so in Ezekiel 36:26-27.


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When I get on a computer I am going to copy the first five verses of deut30 onto it, and your response here
 
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And classic repentance with one desiring to have a spiritual regeneration:

For David said,

"Hide thy face from my sins, and blot out all mine iniquities.
Create in me a clean heart, O God; and renew a right spirit within me." (Psalm 51:9-10).


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When I get on a computer I am going to copy the first five verses of deut30 onto it, and your response here

Good grief Jason, everyone knows ez 36:26&27 is speaking of the new covenant not the old one
 
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When I get on a computer I am going to copy the first five verses of deut30 onto it, and your response here

You don't have to. Here you go.

1 "And it shall come to pass, when all these things are come upon thee, the blessing and the curse, which I have set before thee, and thou shalt call them to mind among all the nations, whither the LORD thy God hath driven thee,

2 And shalt return unto the LORD thy God, and shalt obey his voice according to all that I command thee this day, thou and thy children, with all thine heart, and with all thy soul;

3
That then the LORD thy God will turn thy captivity, and have compassion upon thee, and will return and gather thee from all the nations, whither the LORD thy God hath scattered thee.

4 If any of thine be driven out unto the outmost partsof heaven, from thence will the LORD thy God gather thee, and from thence will he fetch thee:

5 And the LORD thy God will bring thee into the land which thy fathers possessed, and thou shalt possess it; and he will do thee good, and multiply thee above thy fathers.

6 And the LORD thy God will circumcise thine heart, and the heart of thy seed, to love the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, that thou mayest live."


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Good grief Jason, everyone knows ez 36:26&27 is speaking of the new covenant not the old one

No. That would not be true.

"Therefore say unto the house of Israel, Thus saith the Lord GOD; I do not this for your sakes, ..." (Ezekiel 36:22).


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stuart lawrence

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You don't have to. Here you go.

1 "And it shall come to pass, when all these things are come upon thee, the blessing and the curse, which I have set before thee, and thou shalt call them to mind among all the nations, whither the LORD thy God hath driven thee,

2 And shalt return unto the LORD thy God, and shalt obey his voice according to all that I command thee this day, thou and thy children, with all thine heart, and with all thy soul;

3
That then the LORD thy God will turn thy captivity, and have compassion upon thee, and will return and gather thee from all the nations, whither the LORD thy God hath scattered thee.

4 If any of thine be driven out unto the outmost partsof heaven, from thence will the LORD thy God gather thee, and from thence will he fetch thee:

5 And the LORD thy God will bring thee into the land which thy fathers possessed, and thou shalt possess it; and he will do thee good, and multiply thee above thy fathers.

6 And the LORD thy God will circumcise thine heart, and the heart of thy seed, to love the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, that thou mayest live."


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And you honestly believe verse 6 is not related to when the prophetic prophecies of the first five verses have taken plac?
I really don't know what to say, nothing I think so i don't upset you!
 
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