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Tone

"Whenever Thou humblest me, Thou makest me great."
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Don't get ya here.

"Everyone who believes that Yeshua is The Messiah is born from God, and everyone who loves him who begot, loves also the one who is begotten of him."
1 John 5:1

That better?
 
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Tone

"Whenever Thou humblest me, Thou makest me great."
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Sure I see the relationship. Does that mean the whole world is subject to the Torah? Jeremiah says no just like Moses did.

So, what exactly do you see in the relationship?
 
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Neogaia777

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I can't begin to explain how contradictory this statement is...

What is God's Law under the NC...? And obedience to it...?

God Bless!
 
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Soyeong

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The major problem that Paul was trying to fix was with the Corinthians thinking that everything was lawful, so he was quoting what they were saying in order to argue against it, not endorsing it. In 1 Corinthians 6:9-11, Paul listed a number of things that were unlawful that will bar someone from inheriting the Kingdom and he gave many other instructions, so he was not suggesting that we should disregard what he or God command. However, the bottom line is that we must obey God rather than man, so when God has said that certain actions are lawful and you think Paul disagreed with God, then you should be quicker to disregard what Paul said than to disregard what God commanded.

Our salvation is from sin (Matthew 1:21) and sin is defined as the transgression of God's Law (1 John 3:4), so being trained by grace to live in obedience to God's Law through faith is what our salvation from living in disobedience to God's Law looks like. In Romans 1:5, we have recevieved grace in order to bring about the obedience of faith, so we are not saved by our obedience to God's Law, but rather the same grace and faith by which we are salved also requires our obedience. In Titus 2:11-14, our salvation is described as being trained by grace to do what is godly, righteous, and good, and to renounce doing what is ungodly, and sinful, which is essentially what God's Law was given to instruct how to do, so again this is what our salvation looks like.

I can't begin to explain how contradictory this statement is...

I was mostly quoting Scripture, so I don't see anything contradictory in what I said, so please explain what you think that I need to clarify or what you think was wrong.

What is God's Law under the NC...? And obedience to it...?

God Bless!

God's Law straightforwardly refers to all of the laws that God has ever given. While we are under the New Covenant and not the Mosaic Covenant, we are nevertheless still under the same God with the same nature and therefore the same instructions for how to express His character traits. For example of the way to act in accordance with God's righteousness were to change when the New Covenant was given, then God's righteousness would not be eternal, but God's righteousness is eternal (Psalm 119:142), therefore any instructions that God has ever given for how to do what is righteous will always be valid regardless of which covenant we are under, but as part of the New Covenant, we are told that those who do not follow those instructions are not children of God (1 John 3:10).
 
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ace of hearts

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So did Paul have a bad case of diarrhea of the mouth?
 
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ace of hearts

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Where did they so no?
What exactly are you looking for? are you looking for specific words? If so give me some idea by saying for example.... Well hmmmm! It sure seems there was no standard according to you for some 1000 or more years. Now just exactly where does the OT say gentiles are subject to the law given to Israel in the desert? I can't find it. God doesn't give permission for any to sin. I don't think you understand some of the reasons God gave the law. There are plain statements in the Book of the Law why. You're pro law and missed that? Maybe you didn't want to hear it. Please quote what law the world is under. Sodom and Gomorrah weren't judged by the famous 10 because they didn't exist according to Moses in Deut 5.
 
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ace of hearts

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Indeed I do, and that's not what it says. If you make a claim about what the Bible says, then you should be able to quote it.
I see. You don't provide any quotes it does. Since you have access and are or seem to be a student of the law (OT), why is it you need a quote from me and don't provide one contrary to my claim?

Moses says very clearly the covenant law was given to Israel only in Deut 5. This covenant is also quoted therein. The quote is from the stone tablets according to Deut 4:13. Ex 31:13, 17 specifically says the 4th is a sign of that covenant. There's no mention anywhere this covenant was given to the people of Canaan or Egypt from which they were delivered. No mention of the people of Ur included either. Jeremiah a prophet of Israel said there will be a new covenant. The word new here means not in prior existence. It doesn't mean renew as self defined in the same sentence of 31:31-33. Then there's no mention of the 4th commandment in any list of commandments found in the NT. There's not any mention of the sabbath in any list of sins either. Kinda strange that it's said to be a requirement in the NT or of its believers. So what works are you going to tell God you did come that fateful day? I know what God will say because of Scripture even from the OT. Your righteousness will be called filthy rags and cast into the fire. There's only one way to get through those pearly gates.

JN 10:1 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that entereth not by the door into the sheepfold, but climbeth up some other way, the same is a thief and a robber.

2 But he that entereth in by the door is the shepherd of the sheep.

3 To him the porter openeth; and the sheep hear his voice: and he calleth his own sheep by name, and leadeth them out.

4 And when he putteth forth his own sheep, he goeth before them, and the sheep follow him: for they know his voice.

5 And a stranger will they not follow, but will flee from him: for they know not the voice of strangers.

6 This parable spake Jesus unto them: but they understood not what things they were which he spake unto them.

7 Then said Jesus unto them again, Verily, verily, I say unto you, I am the door of the sheep.

8 All that ever came before me are thieves and robbers: but the sheep did not hear them.

9 I am the door: by me if any man enter in, he shall be saved, and shall go in and out, and find pasture.

Jn 14:6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

The bolded have specific meaning and are the words of Jesus. You forgot the words of Ps 14:3 and Rom 3:23. They give you a headache. Neither will allow for your explanation. There are no doers of the law. My Father made sure there would be none. That is what drives us to Jesus. Well some of us. Jesus nor the Holy Spirit enables any one to be a doer of the law. None of our works even the goods works God created us to do have anything to bring about our salvation. One of your buddies references Eph 2:8 and never verse 9 part of the sentence. I think it's because they believe works can cause salvation.
God's Law refers to the Law that God has given, which everyone is under because God is sovereign, and I listed some examples where Gentiles were under God's Law and were obligated to obey it.
Not if you reference Gen 26:5 or refer to Adam subject to the law issued to Israel only. Only Israeli are subject to the famous 10 per Moses as I've shown above. Incorrect. Everything you referenced is said to Israel only. As such it applies to Israel only. There's not a shred of evidence the law was given to anyone else even in Romans. Your statements are the result of bad indoctrination, not Scripture. Ah yes fear was struck in the hearts of the local nations of the middle east because of God and Israel. Read about that in Joshua. I disagree that Israel was to spread the law to other nations as you seem to think with Isa 49:6. I think this is a direct reference to Jesus the light of the world. JN 8:12, 12:36 Not quite correct.
 
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ace of hearts

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This isn't a human. It's our enemy clothed in a human body.
 
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Tone

"Whenever Thou humblest me, Thou makest me great."
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Ha ha, I just heard a good one...

"...so, suppose you look outside and see a lemon tree being obedient and producing lemons. Would that be considered legalism?"
(Paraphrase of Brad Scott, The WildBranch Ministry)

Then someone in the audience says,

"No, it would be lemonism" (paraphrase)

Ha Ha Ha!


As an aside (not the source):
 
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ace of hearts

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Nice joke. Now please answer my question.
 
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Tone

"Whenever Thou humblest me, Thou makest me great."
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Nice joke. Now please answer my question.

Your question was: "for who?".

My question was: "So, what exactly do you see in the relationship?".

The context is the relationship between "YHWH and His Torah".

So, what exactly do you see in the relationship between YHWH and His Torah?

Thank you.
 
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ace of hearts

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Your question was: "for who?".

My question was: "So, what exactly do you see in the relationship?".

The context is the relationship between "YHWH and His Torah".

So, what exactly do you see in the relationship between YHWH and His Torah?

Thank you.
When it come to Torah, the law and in your case the covenant law made with Israel the relationship of the Torah and God is with Israel only. The relationship God has with mankind has changed with the giving of His only begotten dear Son Jesus. There's no more law in the relationship between mankind (including Israel) and God. The law served its purpose.

Gal 3:24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.

25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.

Now I've answered your question twice. Are you going to answer my question?

But since you most likely won't answer my question I will -

1 Tim 1:9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;

11 According to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which was committed to my trust.
 
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Tone

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When it come to Torah, the law and in your case the covenant law made with Israel the relationship of the Torah and God is with Israel only.

You don't have to qualify it. I asked for your thoughts concerning the relationship between YHWH and His Torah...no third parties included...yet.
 
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ace of hearts

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You don't have to qualify it. I asked for your thoughts concerning the relationship between YHWH and His Torah...no third parties included...yet.
What third parties are you talking about? Surely not those you mentioned (Torah and God). I quoted Scripture you seem top be calling a third party.
 
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Tone

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What third parties are you talking about? Surely not those you mentioned (Torah and God). I quoted Scripture you seem top be calling a third party.

"Israel", "mankind", and myself, ("your case") you said.
 
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ace of hearts

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You don't have to qualify it. I asked for your thoughts concerning the relationship between YHWH and His Torah...no third parties included...yet.
Sorry but I do. I need to narrow things down because you'll only argue about anything I say. You asked for personal opinion and I gave you mine backed with Scripture. But that's not what you wanted. So I've got an idea - PM me with what you want to say so I can be sure to post it.
 
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Tone

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You seemed to be widening the scope of my question not "narrowing things down", but I know that misunderstanding is to be expected in these kind of discussions, so no need to apologize. I was just asking for your view of the relationship between YHWH and His Torah. Granted, I asked because I believe that if you honestly asked yourself this question, you cannot help, but see that He and His Torah have a relationship that may be compared to your relationship with your words that you are typing here on this forum. The only difference is, His words are perfect and He will not take them back.
 
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