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This is interesting. Thanks for launching this thread.Do we get it wrong when interpreting the events that took place on Pentecost? Did each of the 12 Apostles supernaturally speak an unlearned human language? Understood by most of the audience in their native tongue? (The common view). Or did each pray aloud in only one heavenly tongue, not human, to God? And foreigners in the audience each heard the single heavenly language in their own native tongues?
According to Paul: “For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.” (1 Corinthians 14:2) (KJV 1900)
So, if they spoke in a heavenly tongue and not in a human tongue. And devout Jews (born again) from every nation understood them in their own native tongues. These must have received the gift of interpretation during the same outpouring.
That is, a heavenly language, not human, spoken to God. Overheard and interpreted in the native language of the hearer who also received the gift of interpretation of tongues at the same time.
Stressing this possibility is that some in the audience heard only gibberish. They heard the Heavenly tongue without interpretation.
Any thoughts?
I question the key scripture you are using. (in bold below) What does the context reveal?
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1 Corinthians 14:1-5
Follow the way of love and eagerly desire gifts of the Spirit, especially prophecy.
2 For anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to people but to God.
Indeed, no one understands them; they utter mysteries by the Spirit.
3 But the one who prophesies speaks to people for their strengthening, encouraging and comfort.
4 Anyone who speaks in a tongue edifies themselves, but the one who prophesies edifies the church.
5 I would like every one of you to speak in tongues, but I would rather have you prophesy.
The one who prophesies is greater than the one who speaks in tongues,
unless someone interprets, so that the church may be edified.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Verse 2 begins with the word "For" meaning it is pointing backwards at the previous verses. As if to say "because". So, that's a key consideration here.
So, the general subject here is prophecy, which is being compared to tongues.
What comparatives are given?
- (unlike prophecy) anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to people but to God. - vs 2
- (unlike prophecy) no one understands them; they utter mysteries by the Spirit. - vs 2
- (unlike tongues) the one who prophesies speaks to people for their strengthening, encouraging and comfort. - vs 3
So, the purpose of this passage is not to describe tongues, it is to compare it to prophecy.
Furthermore, if tongues worked the way you are describing it, what need would there be for the interpretation of tongues?
1 Corinthians 14:5
I would like every one of you to speak in tongues, but I would rather have you prophesy.
The one who prophesies is greater than the one who speaks in tongues,
unless someone interprets, so that the church may be edified.
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