BeforeThereWas
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Likewise can you produce scripture saying they didn't?
What I said is that there is no verse requiring wage earners to hand over any percentage of their monetary income to the Levites. Asking someone to prove a negative speaks only of your lack of understanding.
You assume Abraham's tithe has some sort of parallel to us today, and that wage earners were required to hand over a portion of their monetary wages to the Levites, and therefore the burden of proof is on you, not on me.
I provided all the best scriptures I could find with explanations.
Where did you ever explain any of those verses, except to make generalized statements about their meaning to you? Nowhere did you discuss their actual context, reach, limitations, application, or anything else.
You're trying to turn the NT tithe into a law. It can't be done because Christ redeemed us from the law.
Wrong.
I'm saying that not only does the Law nowhere define the lawful tithe as having anything to do with the monetary wages of wage earners, I also said that Abraham's tithe ALSO had nothing to do with monetary wages of wage earners, and he did not hand over to Melchizedek any portion of his own personal property.
So what do you have left to try and show us the Lord allegedly showed to you?
In a nutshell, you're claiming the Lord Himself misrepresented the scriptures to you. You've quoted and referenced verses throughout the Bible that NOWHERE have anything to do with the monetary wages of wage earners, and then turn around and claim some lord showed you his good pleasure in falsehoods and misrepresentations.
What manner of god does that? It certainly isn't the God described within scripture!
You claimed it was all scriptural, and yet you've misrepresented every one of those verses, totally ignoring almost every question asked of you that you know deep down you can't answer without being exposed as the relativist you are when it comes to scripture. Wishful thinking and presupposition doesn't force scripture to fit into whatever sized box of your personal choosing.
The NT tithe is like the pre-law, non-law tithe. See my earlier post for the 8 applicable scriptures.
There is no pre-law tithe example we can follow. Abraham tithed from spoils. How you people translate over into monetary wages Abraham's tithe, which is NOT an increase, completely escpaes me. I've asked you to explain the correlation, and you still haven't done so.
What are you afraid of when it comes to explaining the parallel you seem to see in those verses?
As for Jacob, we have no evidence he ever fulfilled his promise of a tithe, all of which was established on preconditions he expected the Lord fulfill.
That clearly is NOT an example to us, nor is it something the Lord ever expected of us.
The Lord never demanded a percentage of wages because the Bible NOWHERE defined wages as a form of increase.
Why?
Simply because wages are NOT a form of increase.
Wages are an EXCHANGE of your labors and skills for money.
The multiplication of seed from one seed in soil is an INCREASE, based upon the mechanism the Lord created in nature. Man did not create that mechanism. The multiplication of animals through breding is an INCREASE.
Wages are therefore NOT a form of increase, but rather an EXCHANGE.
See the difference?
BTW
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