Mans life (blood) is brought into living, via Gods Life, in a living soul, imparted INTO a mans body. That living soul, with Gods LIFE in it, is called BOTH, mans soul and belonging to God.
THAT is my understanding of God being through all, Gods MADE souls, with LIFE from God, IN the soul, and the living soul, IN a man.
Ah, I see what you are saying, that God is the life in a persons blood. Do you think God's life in the blood is conscious?
God DWELLING "IN" a man, is specific to Gods Spirit, being IN a MAN.
Gods Spirit "IN" a man, is specifically IN, a NEW HEART, God has given the MAN.
Jesus teaches in John 16:8-11 that an unbeliever can be convicted of sin by the Holy Spirit. To accomplish this the Holy Spirit must communicate with the unbelieving human spirit. Conviction by the Spirit is not an every now and then event, the Spirit desires every person to come to salvation at all times. So again I want to make the clear distinction between the Spirit dwelling in a person to convict and save and dwelling in a person's spiritual heart.
The main point here is that God's Spirit can interact with the unregenerate human spirit before being given a new heart; and in this way God's Spirit can dwell in an unbeliever.
You are attempting to claim, Gods Spirit is IN every man. It isn't. Nor has God given every man a NEW HEART.
I do not claim God has given every man a new heart, do you still not understand?
Do you classify Satan as an unbeliever?
No. I classify Satan as UN-faithful.
Can Satan hear when God talks to him? Can Satan converse with God?
I believe Gods direct communication with Satan has ceased, because of Satan's un-faithfulness.
Can Satan converse with God?
Directly? No.
Ok, now you are making a distinction between unbelievers, and believers who are unfaithful (lost salvation). So your argument is that unbelievers can't hear God but the unfaithful can. But then you say God's direct communication with Satan has ceased because he is unfaithful. So your point that the unfaithful can hear God is in direct contradiction with your assessment of Satan. But I suppose you get around this because Satan is an "angel" and not a man. At some point in history Satan could communicate directly with God (book of Job) and Jesus (temptations) while being an unfaithful angel. It is not impossible then, for communication between the unfaithful and God.
The king had a dream. Where does the king believe it was communication from God?
Where does Scripture say God was communicating with the king?
The king had a dream. He didn't know what it meant. Daniel told the king what it meant. The king believed Daniel.
Telling me what transpired between the king and Daniel, is not news.
Give me the scripture that says God communicated with the king, BY GIVING the king a dream. That is your point, but you give no scripture that reveals your point.
Ummm, I did, Daniel 2:28.
Born again believers tempted by Satan ? No.
Was Jesus not a born-again believer?
Why would it be any different with God?
Why would WHAT be any different? Tempting? Are you trying to say, God is a tempter?
EXPOUND.
I am saying, if Satan can tempt all mankind, then surely God can also communicate with all mankind.
Upvote
0