He did come on the clouds, as He said.
That is not true yet, though. If it is true, what did He come on the clouds to do at the time? Can you answer that, in light of everything I submit below? The coming in question is meaning after the trib of those days, whatever those days are referring to, and is after/during when the sun is darkened, and is after the sign of the Son of man in heaven
Matthew 24:15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand: )
16 Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains:
17 Let him which is on the housetop not come down to take any thing out of his house:
18 Neither let him which is in the field return back to take his clothes.
19 And woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck in those days!
20 But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day:
21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened.
23 Then if any man shall say unto you, Lo, here is Christ, or there; believe it not.
24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
25 Behold, I have told you before.
26 Wherefore if they shall say unto you, Behold, he is in the desert; go not forth: behold, he is in the secret chambers; believe it not.
Since Jesus wasn't confused about anything, verses 23-26 clearly prove the coming in verse 30 has not occurred at this point. Meaning up until verse 26 in Matthew 24.
Matthew 24:27 For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
This is telling us how He comes. This is not meaning the coming recorded in verse 30 has now happened at this point in time. There is still the following first.
Matthew 24:29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
The coming recorded in verse 30 still hasn't occurred at this point.
Matthew 24:30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
This is when Matthew 24:27 is fulfilled. Which then leads to what is recorded in verse 31 and leads to all of the following. And not just that, also what is recorded in the remainder of Matthew 24 following verse 41.
Matthew 24:39 And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
40 Then shall two be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left.
41 Two women shall be grinding at the mill; the one shall be taken, and the other left.
Who do Preterists think were in the field and who do they think were grinding at the mill when the coming recorded in verse 30 allegedly occurred 2000 years ago? Do Preterists think verses 40-41 was happening in Jerusalem when it was being overthrown and destroyed by the Romans? Imagine picturing verse 41 taking place in Jerusalem while it is being destroyed. It can't get much more nonsensical than that if verse 41 is somehow applicable to the events of 70 AD.
Why I'm asking you these things, is beyond me? Since all you seem to have is one liners for answers, which don't solve anything one way or the other.