Where eschatology is concerned, we have been puzzled over the things said about the third temple, about the antichrist desecrating that temple.
How can that third temple have any descriptor as being "holy" when it is well established that we who are in Christ Jesus are the temples. When that veil was ripped down the middle, and thus exposing the place where the Lord once dwelt, buildings constructed by the hands of men no longer were holy by virtue of the dwelling place of the Lord.
How is it, then, that ANY place on this earth, in the post-cross era, be "desecrated" that's no longer the special dwelling place of the presence of the Lord. Was John's inspiration, to write those things that SEEM to indicate that place as truly holy from God's perspective, meant to point more toward the perspective of the Jews? If so, then I'm wondering why he didn't express that thought clearly.
It's one thing for the antichrist to proclaim himself God, and thus demand worship, but quite another that he did so in what will allegedly be a holy place.
I've read where some speculated that the designation of "holy" is actually a reference to the hearts of people moreso than the stone temple itself. The text doesn't seem to point in that direction as being merely allegorical.
Thoughts?
Jr