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how is this evidence that "until" is not used to denote a fixed point and time? unless you show why, it's not evidence at all.
Can someone show where the word ἕως used as a conjunction and rendered as "until" or "til" not used to denote an expiring condition? Lets keep it simple and just compare the usages in Matthew.
how is this evidence that "until" is not used to denote a fixed point and time? unless you show why, it's not evidence at all.
this word is also used to denote males from the same parents, right?Again, your supposition is inconsistent with both the Greek and Semitic usage.
As before, "adelphos/adelphi" have as their range a male origin - bilogical, metaphoric, spiritual, or (I forgot to include) legal. The terms reference a common father (not mother).
So, cousins are adelphos through a common grandfather. For the uncle/nephew relationship, the common 'father' is further generationally removed.
Mary is said by John to have an adelphi named Mary. What is the relationship of Mary and Mary.
Note that Gabriel, when adressing Joseph, refers to Mary as the "Child's mother", not Joseph's wife.
The use of the term adelphos is not evidence of Mary having other children. It indicates that Jesus and the adelphos/adelphi shared a common bilogical or legal male progenitor or head of household.
1) In chapter 5 and 22 of what? Matthew?In chapter 5, it should be considered whether the Law is an expression of the will of God for mankind, and if that will changes after the end of time.
In chapter 22, it should be considered whether after the end of time, Christ will no longer have the same relationship re: God the Father (given the core meaning of "sit at the right hand").
1) In chapter 5 and 22 of what? Matthew?
2) You still haven't shown any evidence. You're still speculating things.
this word is also used to denote males from the same parents, right?
Matthew 5:18 (English Standard Version)
18For truly, I say to you,(A) until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished.
Matthew 22:42-46 (New International Version)
42"What do you think about the Christ[a]? Whose son is he?"
"The son of David," they replied. 43He said to them, "How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him 'Lord'? For he says,
44" 'The Lord said to my Lord:
"Sit at my right hand
until I put your enemies
under your feet." '[b] 45If then David calls him 'Lord,' how can he be his son?" 46No one could say a word in reply, and from that day on no one dared to ask him any more questions.
Actually this proves Mary probably had sex since heaven and earth will pass away Revelation 21:1 Then I saw a new heaven and a new earth, for the first heaven and the first earth had passed away, and there was no longer any sea.
I mean explain yourself clearly, and show some actual Biblical evidence. You've done niether.I am unclear on what you mean; could you explain what I am speculating ?
And there's no indication that "adelphos" means anything other than family relation, in the texts that speak of Jesus' brothers, that have been brought up.Yes, as the father (male) is the same biologically or by adoption.
So, Herod and his "adelphos" are - though born of different mothers - as much adelphos as if they had the same mother also.
And there's no indication that "adelphos" means anything other than family relation, in the texts that speak of Jesus' brothers, that have been brought up.
But no Biblical reasons.There are theological reasons for why Mary remained a virgin.
Except that indulging in sex doesn't equal any lack of holiness:The Theotokos is holy and she gave birth to Christ. Who we say that she is has everything to do with who we say Christ is. I'll say it again because the significance of the event is obviously lost to many here: Mary gave birth to Christ our God. Should she have taken what was consecrated to God and made holy by Him and profane it by indulging in earthly passions just to make modern man feel better about his own lack of holiness? I think not.
But she was married.She is called the Unwedded Bride.
She has a large uterus?Her womb is more spacious than the heavens.
No Biblical evidence of such.She gave birth yet remained a virgin.
"For there is no respect of persons with God," (Rom. 2: 11).for it is her prayers that find special favor before her Son.
I mean explain yourself clearly, and show some actual Biblical evidence. You've done niether.
In this case, your example, one must consider whether the Law is entirely a legal entity or the will of God for mankind expressed in created time in the form of limitations to encourage godliness. In this sense, if it is the latter, the Law is not legalism (as the Pharisees had it) but as Christ expressed it - love. The love that is of God is not ephemeral, because God is love (as John professed). Will the love that is of God pass away ?
1) That Mary never had sexBiblical evidence of what ?
1) That Mary never had sex
2) That Mary never had other children
3) That the Bible doesn't mean "adelphos" in the sense of having the same parents in the texts discussed
4) That the word "until" doesn't denote a specific point in time as far as Mary having sex
Provide Biblical evidence of all or any of these. So far, all that's been given is "this doesn't necessarily mean that, though it could". That's not evidence, that's just speculation.
I hope I made this clear enough.
The marriage is not truly a marriage until concumation. Joseph and Mary needed to consumate the marriage. Jospeh waited until after the birth, not Mary.
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