The word Christian means

[prodromos]

Most bibles are based on AlexaNDRIAN mANUSCRIPTS, WHICH ARE CORRUPTED

Please enlighten us. Which manuscript families don't have "χριστιανός"? I want to see evidence, not opinion.

 

[PaladinValer]

Indeed.

And since all the manuscripts agree, we can be extremely confident that the original Greek had χριστιανός, for which "Christian" is the most accurate transliteration.

I'm no expert in Greek, but that appears to be the case.

The meaning of χριστιανός is "a Christian, a follower of Christ," and every lexicon I've seen defines it that way.

Yup. I already showed how the English language actually got the words Christian and cretin, and his etymology is pure worthless bunk.

And even the Romans who hated Christians knew that Christians were people who followed Christ. Some of the famous anti-Christian graffiti proves this.

We're just a bunch of cannibals. Wait...that's actually true!

How did you determine that the Alexandrian manuscripts are corrupt? How do you know that it isn't the Byzantine manuscripts which are corrupt?

The Alexandrian family of manuscripts are usually older, so perhaps it is the later Byzantine manuscripts which have been corrupted.

That, and the Alexandrian family has been long proven to be the vast majority of texts in the first six centuries.

...and there was plenty of heresy going on in Byzantium as well. Nestorianism? Eutychianism? Monothelitism? Iconoclasm? All centered in Byzantium.

-CryptoLutheran

With all due respect, and you know I have a lot of it for you, I think we all know that was your account's former name, and you certainly aren't a "crypto" anything anymore.

Please enlighten us. Which manuscript families don't have "χριστιανός"? I want to see evidence, not opinion.

None, and I'd like to see actual proof as well, though I doubt we'll ever see it.

 

[IamNazarene]

The king James was a fresh rendering of the manuscripts.
Rendered by William Tyndale.
From Errasmus.

The reformers worked it out.

They new the Latin vulgate was corrupt.

Later came the Alexandrian manuscripts through wescott and hort.

Now I know not one bible version is like KJV because I comp[are.

KJV is strong.

It might sound crazy but God led me to KJV.

 

[ViaCrucis]

The king James was a fresh rendering of the manuscripts.
Rendered by William Tyndale.
From Errasmus.

The reformers worked it out.

They new the Latin vulgate was corrupt.

Later came the Alexandrian manuscripts through wescott and hort.

Now I know not one bible version is like KJV because I comp[are.

KJV is strong.

It might sound crazy but God led me to KJV.

If the Reformers believed the Vulgate was corrupt, how come they continued to rely on it when they translated Scripture?

Bibles that relied on the KJV? The Matthew Bible and the King James Version.

Don't believe me, look up Isaiah 14:12 in the KJV.

See the word "lucifer" there? That's not Hebrew, that's not English, that's not Greek. That's Latin.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[IamNazarene]

Myles coverdale It ink did the old testament, Tyndale was killed.

If you wanna understand what the reformers did and how then read this concise history.

http://www.greatsite.com/timeline-english-bible-history/index.html

 

[Radagast]

The king James was a fresh rendering of the manuscripts.
Rendered by William Tyndale.
From Errasmus.

William Tyndale died in 1536. The KJV was produced during 1604-1611.

Later came the Alexandrian manuscripts through wescott and hort.

Those came earlier. They were used, as the name suggests, by the ancient church in Egypt.

 

[IamNazarene]

I know WT died earlier but WT translation was used for most of KJV.

Read that history.