Careful not to commit that genetic fallacy. Whether or not the Enlightenment brought the issue up, and whatever we may think about that period of time, the idea is the idea and needs to be taken on its own terms.
Well, not quite. If an idea emerges from a group of cultural assumptions, and that issue is not married to cultural assumptions from other eras and areas, then the cultural assumptions themselves could be what bears examination.
It need not be taken
on its own terms. It need be taken in real terms, not necessarily its own.
But there are some things that we cannot be deceived about. I cannot be deceived that 1+1=2 or that I exist.
Actually you can't demonstrate either. 1+1=2 is simply a mass of communicative definitions brought together and resolved by a concept of logical meaning.
I think this can be demonstrated with a question.
Is logic an invention or is it reality?
I can't be deceived in my personal beliefs or thoughts, for my they are a very matter of my own constitution.
1. You can be deceived about their connection with reality, which reaches the same result.
2. You can't communicate those personal beliefs or thoughts in a way that guarantees their accurate reception.
3. You may even have a tough time putting them into words, in which case you're having trouble communicating them to yourself. Worse, your attempt to reduce them to the communicable may deprive them of reality -- and you may lose the actual sense of their reality when you experienced them.
Words are not reality. Words are map symbols.
And, to the extent that my premises are true and my methodology correct, I cannot be deceived about any given conclusion. So while your statement is in one sense true, it is not true of all facts.
And how do you propose to demonstrate the correctness of your methodology and the truth of your premises?
Logic uses the term "validity" for a reason -- it doesn't establish truth or falsehood.
Of course not, but all of us are discoverers of truth. Unless you believe that we cannot know any truth?
My question is whether you have any assurance that you know any truth.
If you don't then my point is valid, and addresses your point accurately.
I have no problem with that at all. It is the basis of my own assurance. But when this Arbiter of Truth has (supposedly) told us that some of us are mistaken in our belief that we are looking to Him--that we are deceived--then the entire issue becomes moot.
It is definitely not a moot point when the Arbiter of Truth has (supposedly) told us how to escape this deception.
He is certainly trustworthy to save those whom He has elected. But how, then, do you know if you are elect? For if I know I am elect, then I know my belief is not false. But that means I cannot use my belief as a basis of knowing whether or not I am elect, and thus, my belief cannot serve as a basis for any assurance of my salvation. The logic is simply inescapable:
1. Some people who claim they have believed, and are convinced they have believed, have not actually believed, but are deceived;
2. I claim I have believed and am convinced I have believed;
3. Therefore, I may be one of the ones who are deceived.
The assertion of Scripture is that people are deceived due to certain means. As long as we ignore the means, or misassess the means as being something that it's not, then of course the syllogism holds.
But what if there's another means? Then the syllogism becomes irrelevant. Valid -- but irrelevant.
Only in perseverance theology. I know I am not deceived, but I don't hold to perseverance. I hold to eternal security. So, for those who do hold to perseverance, how can they claim to know that they are not deceived? And if they cannot know that they are not, then how can they say that they know they are saved?
Waitin' on that Scripture verse that says "You can't know
you're not deceived."
Yes, and all those things prove that you cannot know that you are saved, for if I fall away, it happens at a place in time subsequent to my profession in faith, my keeping His commands, and my confession of sin. That means that any given profession of faith, keeping of the commandments, and confession of sin does not mean I can know I am saved, for it is possible that I may fall away in the future if I, unbenownst to myself, am not elect.
As I hold to perseverance, my point is that the Scriptural "fall away" is not a falling away from my salvation or saving belief, but from the people of God, or the keeping of Christ's commands.
You're listening to your nouns, right? "I, my, my, my, I, I, I, myself".
Again, the syllogism holds, but would be shown irrelevant if there's another means of reaching the conclusion. You can be deceived by whom? "I, my, my, my, I, I, I, myself".
The car won't "go" just because I'm at the wheel. It takes something else that I rely on: a key, a mechanic, a tank with gas. If you're just looking at whether "I'm at the wheel", that's not a reliable scheme for assuring the car's headed somewhere.
But that logic is irrelevant -- valid, but irrelevant -- if you simply observe the car zooming down the street.
I certainly agree that God accomplishes His goals in His children. But how do you know that you are one of them? Perhaps you are a tare, and you simply don't know it? Perhaps in time you will fall away, demonstrating the fact that your faith was not real.
Wouldn't you apply the rules of evidence that the Truth provided to determine this?
Isn't it true, then, that you don't KNOW you are saved, but you only hope/think you are?
Wouldn't you trust the rules of evidence that the Truth provided (and you trust in) to determine this?