Actually Colossians, whilst your question is an interesting one it is very deeply flawed. You pose it as a question for biology when in fact it is a question for Sociology, and in fact is a very simple one to answer.
The reason your question is flawed is that you have it in the wrong order and address it to the wrong science. let me explain. There is no drive to do that which is prohibited, there is a drive to seek pleasure and to avoid discomfort.
Now we know that all higher life forms share the drive to avoid discomfort and to seek pleasure, so we know that that is a natural trait that must have evolved. We see it in sub-sentient species so we know that it exists prior to complex human societies.
Now society mitigates what is prohibited. Without society there is no prohibition of any kind. Therefore the drive to avoid pain and to seek pleasure pre-dates society. However, in order for humans to live in the large and organised, stratified societies that we choose to live in, it is necessary for us to sacrifice some of our freedom. Since freedom is the ability to do what we wish, and thus to seek any pleasure we wish, it is necessary for society to prohibit certain activities that we would otherwise be inclined to peruse. So, your question is fallacious because it puts the cart before the horse. You ask why did the urge to break prohibitions evolve, when in fact it did not. We created prohibitions to stop us perusing urges to seek pleasure, because it makes it possible to live in more complex societies. In short, we created an artificial construct to modify our evolved behaviour because we chose to do so. This does not mean that the urge to do these things has vanished, it means we have prohibited them after their evolution.
Hope that helps. If you would like to discuss such sociological matters further I can happily open a thread in the social science section for us to discss it.
Ghost