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Really no need to as either way is fits that the harpazo would happen at any as there is no coming apostasy as it has already comeYou'll have to argue (posthumously) with Bro. John F. Walvoord about that. I was merely quoting him.
Wrong just so wrong as Context is Much more important as it makes no difference how good your grammar is when you take things out of ContextNope.
Context is subjective, i.e. subject to interpretation.
Grammar is objective. That means that it is defined by rules. Thus there are rules of grammar which are associated with every language.
That which is objective will always take precedence over, and can be used to define and clarify, that which is subjective. In language, this means that the objective rules of grammar can be used to define and clarify the subjective interpretations of context.
The essential precedence of objectivity over subjectivity is evident in innumerable aspects of life, and in the laws and rules of the universe. Chaos would result if this were not true. If you formulated your own subjective interpretation about the context of gravity, and concluded that gravity did not in fact exist, you could easily test your subjective interpretation of its context (many have) from the top of a cliff. Would you? I presume not. Why wouldn't you? Because you've become aware that the objective rule of gravity will always take precedence over your subjective interpretation of its context.
And when the objective rules of grammar are applied to the subjective interpretation of the context of the passage in Daniel 9, they define and clarify the reality that all of the "he's" in Daniel 9:27 have an antecedent of Messiah the Prince.
I've described the interrelationship between grammar and context at some length.Wrong just so wrong as Context is Much more important as it makes no difference how good your grammar is when you take things out of Context
Context is of the utmost Importance !
You'll have to argue (posthumously) with Bro. John F. Walvoord about that. I was merely quoting him.
The falling away began in the fourth century.The rapture/resurrection is in 1thessalonians4. Then the peace and safety illusion in 1thessalonians5 as before the Day of the Lord and the wrath therein. The rapture/resurrection again in verses 9-11, not appointed unto wrath.
Then in 2thesslaonians2, the two things to take place right before the Day of the Lord; the falling away and the person going into the temple, sitting claiming to be God. And the taking out of the way in verse 7, before all of the bad things take place regarding that person as the Day of the Lord begins.
______________________________________________________________________________
The person becomes the King of Israel, appearing that the Jews were right all along concerning Jesus. And many in Christianity fall away, during the apparent messianic reign of peace and safety
Three years or so into his reign, the perceived messiah gets to believing in his heart that the has achieved God-hood. Goes into the temple, sits, claims to be God - triggering the Day of the Lord.
rapture/resurrection has to be before the Day of the Lord begins. How far before is unknown.
I was once a pre-trib advocate but had many convictions about it and frankly, the thing that was most disturbing is that there were NO scriptures that could be used literally to verify or prove it. I do believe God will, as He promised, protect those that are His and that we, Christians, believers, etc are not pre-destined for His Wrath and thus "The Church" and Christians, believers, will not be left on earth to endure the hardships that will occur as God releases His Wrath upon earth during the Day of the Lord. My biggest problem with the Pre-Tribulation view of the Rapture is as follows. If the Rapture is the great hope of the Church and is scriptural, which is it, then why can't pre-tribulation point to and cite the section of Scripture where Christ, himself, taught about the Rapture? Pre-Trib advocates will attempt to construct, by taking some scriptures figuratively and symbolically to refer to a Rapture before the 7 year period that is often referred to as the Tribulation period but nowhere can they point to the Gospels and say here is where Christ told us about the Rapture. There is through a passage of Scripture where Christ did teach and tell the disciples about the coming Rapture but it's so often dismissed by pre-trib advocates as being the 2nd coming rather than the Rapture and that is in Matthew 24:31.
If there was ever a section or passage of Scripture that gave Christ the opportunity to tell about and describe the Rapture then it's Matthew 24 where Christ, in direct reply to a question about the end times, gave a very detailed account of what to expect. I submit that from this recorded teaching, in Matthew 24, by Christ, the Disciples took those teachings and delivered them to the Churches and from this is where the teachings of Paul to the Thessalonians and the Corinthians came from. I do believe in a Rapture and the very Rapture that Christ, himself, taught about in Matthew 31. I also believe that this Rapture happens during the 7 year period, not at the beginning when the peace treaty is signed with Israel but that the Rapture occurs sometime after the abomination of desolation in the Temple.
If you are going to teach and believe in a pre-Tribulation timing of the Rapture then first start with Christ and please cite book, chapter, and verse where Christ taught about a pre-Trib Rapture? I do believe in a Rapture that will remove Christians/believers from earth ahead of God's Wrath, but nowhere did God promise that He would protect man from man's wrath nor the wrath of Antichrist which I believe is detailed, also in Matthew 24 and also detailed in Revelation chapter 6.
Beginning with Mt.24:31:
And He will send His angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather His ELECT from the four winds [Israel - on earth], from one end of the heavens to the other [The Church Jesus will rapture before the seven year tribulation begins]. How did those ELECT get into heaven? Read on to find out.
Jn.14:2-4 and 28:
"In my Father's house are many mansions; if it were not so, I would have told you. I am going there to prepare a place for you [See Jn.20:17]. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you to be with me that you also may be where I am. You know the way to the place where I am going." [Jn.14:2-4].
"You heard me say, 'I am going away and I am coming back to you.' If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I." [Jn.14:28].
The Scriptures tell us where we all go, who belong to Christ, after the death of our bodies:
"We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord." As recorded in 2 Cor.5:8, confirming Ecc.12:7. Which is, in and of itself, conclusive to the fact that Jesus is not going to let the rest of His Church remain on earth to go through the seven year tribulation, when He returns for those of us who are still alive, waiting for His appearing, in 1 Thess.4:17. Since He raises all those who have died, to be with Him, immediately after their physical death, for more than 2,000 years.
A look at 1 Thess.4:13-18:
The Thessalonians were very concerned about those among them who had died, that they would not be gathered together with the rest of them when Jesus returned. Paul assures them in vs 13-14 that they will all be returning with Christ from heaven, where they have been since He raised them up to be with Him, the day they died physically, according to 2 Cor.5:6-8.
"We believe that Jesus died and rose again and so we believe that God will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in Him [Died physically]. Vs 14.
"According to the Lord's own word [Scriptural truth as to the fact that Jesus taught there was to be a pre-trib rapture of the Church, as recorded in Jn.14:2-4 and 28], we tell you that we who are still alive, who are left to the coming of the Lord, will certainly not precede those who have fallen asleep." Vs 15. An assurance by Paul to the Thessalonians that the dead in Christ had already been raised from the dead before, and were already with Christ when He returns for all those left on earth alive at His coming.
Because they have already been raised, each in his/her own turn, according to 1 Cor.15:23. That is the very reason it is not documented as a resurrection in the Scriptures.
"For the Lord Himself will come down from heaven [With all His saints [Church], according to vs 14], with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first" [Paul again assures them, as seen in verses 13-14, they were already previously raised once before, each in his/her own turn, as they died, for more than 2,000 years]. Vs 16.
"After that, we who are still alive and are left will be CAUGHT UP [raptured] together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the sky. And so we will be with the Lord forever." Vs 17. Where we proceed with Jesus to our Father in heaven as He promised us in Jn.14:2-4 and 28.
"Therefore encourage each other with these words." Vs 18.
The precise timing of the rapture of the Church in 2 Thess.2:1-8:
"Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to Him, we ask you, brothers, not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by some prophecy, report or letter supposed to have come from us, saying that the Day of the Lord [The 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation of Dan.9:27] has already come." 2 Thess.2:1-2. Which is a direct reference to 1 Thess.4:17 and the theme of Paul's entire pre-trib rapture message in 2 Thess.2:1-8. When we will be CAUGHT UP TOGETHER WITH THEM IN THE CLOUDS TO MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR. [Parenthetics mine].
The "Day of the Lord" Paul refers to in vs 2, alludes to Dan.9:27, when God will intervene into the affairs of man, culminating in the second coming of Jesus to the earth. In that passage of Scripture, the Day of the Lord is triggered by the "he" who "confirms a covenant [An agreement] for one Week" [The Day of the Lord/ 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation], who is the Antichrist. The second, and same "he," who stops Israel from the offerings and sacrificing in the temple of God, and the third, and same "he," who breaks his covenant in the middle of the Week [After 3.5 of the 7 year total], and sets up the abomination of desolation Jesus referred to in Mt.24:15, in His Olivet Discourse, about the sign of His second coming, and of the end of the age.
In verse 3: "Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that Day [The Day of the Lord, the 70th and final Week, the seven year tribulation] WILL NOT COME, until the "apostasia" [Greek term in which the original translation was "TO DEPART, or DEPARTURE." meaning, the RAPTURE of the Church occurs FIRST, BEFORE THE DAY OF LORD] occurs and the man of lawlessness [The Antichrist, all three of the "he's" in Dan.9:27] is revealed [Who triggers the Day of the Lord/ the 70th and final Week/ the seven year tribulation], the man doomed to destruction." Which reveals the "apostasia" [DEPARTURE] will take place before the Antichrist is revealed, who triggers the 70th Week/seven year tribulation. Confirmed in verses 7 and 8 below.
Translation History of apostasia and discessio: By: Thomas Ice, PhD
The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either " departure" or " departing." They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608) . This supports the notion that the word truly means " departure." In fact, Jerome' s Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the time of 325 A.D. renders apostasia with the word, "discessio," meaning "DEPARTURE." Why was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of " departure" in 1611 A.D.? [It is more than likely due to overzealous RCC scribes who altered the original wording of vs 3. to accommodate their teachings of Amillenialism, which rejects both the pre-trib rapture of the Church as well as Jesus Millennial reign her on earth].
Theodore Beza, the Swiss reformer was the first to transliterate apostasia and create a new word, rather than translate it as others had done. The translators of the King James Version were the first to introduce the new rendering of apostasia as " falling away." Most English translators have followed the KJV and Beza in departing from translating apostasia as " departure." No reason was ever given.
"He [The Antichrist] will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God's temple, proclaiming himself to be God." Vs 4. [The abomination of desolation, confirming Dan.9:27 and Mt.24:15]. See also 2 Thess.2:4.
The rapture of the Church and verse 3 confirmed:
In verse 7: "For the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so until he [The saints - Church] is taken out of the way."
The "he" who will be taken out of the way, is the one body of Christ, who bear the Holy Spirit within each of us [Eph.1:13-14], the Church of Jesus Christ. The very same as those who will participate in the "apostasia," the "departure," [the rapture] of the Church, in vs 3. Immediately following that:
In verse 8: "And then the lawless one [The antichrist] will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will overthrow with the breath of His mouth and destroy by the splendor of His coming." Vs 8. [See Rev.19:17-21].
The antichrist is found in all three of the "he's" in Dan. 9:27, confirmed by Jesus in Mt.24:15; Mk.13:14 and by Paul, in 2 Thess.2:3, 4 and 8.
From the above Scriptural facts, there can be only one proper interpretation for the timing of the rapture of the Church, which will be immediately preceding the 70th and final/7 year tribulation, triggered by the antichrist, all three of the "he's" in Dan.9:27. Seen also as the first of the four horsemen of the apocalypse, riding the white horse, in the first of the seven seals, in Rev.6:2. There is no "pre-wrath" or post-trib rapture taught in the Scriptures.
Other verses pertaining to the rapture of the Church: 1 Thess.1:10; 1 Thess.5:9; Rev.3:10 and Rev.4:1-2. Of the saints [Church] returning with Christ from their marriage in heaven, in Rev.19:7, 8 and 14; Jude 14 and Zech.14:4-5/
The difference between the rapture of the Church and the second coming of Christ:
http://deeperwalk.lefora.com/2009/12/19 ... f-t/#post0
All parenthetics mine.
God Bless!
Quasar92
You have been given the Scriptural facts pertaining to the pre-trib rapture of the Church and I am not the slightest bi interested in what you think, until you show me proper qualifications to present them.
Show me your Scriptural support for whatever you think pertains to the 24 elders around the throne of God in Revelation. And just what is your point in their getting thto heaven before John?
Review the Biblical facts pertaining to the identity of the 24 Elders, in the following:
Who are the twenty four Elders around the throne of God in Rev.4:4 ?
The twenty four Elders around the throne of God, represent the twenty four courses of the Levitical priesthood, with one priest for each course seated on each of the twenty four thrones.
As recorded in 1 Chr.24:7-18. In Jer.33:17-18: "For this is what the Lord says: 'David will never fail to have a man to sit on the throne of Israel, NOR WILL THE PRIESTS, who are Levites ever fail to have before me continually to offer burnt offerings, to burn grain offerings and to present sacrifices.'" See also 2 Sam.7 for God's promise to David.
There are many who attempt to identify them as the twelve apostles and twelve of the old testament saints, but there is nothing in the Bible to support this theory or any of the others, except the one above.
Quasa92r
Here are examples that are entirely copy/paste examples of the definitions of grammar and context - very straight forward - it really doesn't need any more of an explanation.I've described the interrelationship between grammar and context at some length.
You'll have to advance a better argument than "wrong just so wrong".
Please don't jump off that cliff.
Here are examples that are entirely copy/paste examples of the definitions of grammar and context - very straight forward - it really doesn't need any more of an explanation.
Grammar
noun
the study of the way the sentences of a language are constructed; morphology and syntax.
Generative Grammar. a device, as a body of rules, whose output is all of the sentences that are permissible in a given language, while excluding all those that are not permissible.
: the study of the classes of words, their inflections (see inflection 3), and their functions and relations in the sentence
b : a study of what is to be preferred and what avoided in inflection (see inflection 3) and syntax (see syntax 1)
2 a : the characteristic system of inflections (see inflection 3) and syntax of a language
b : a system of rules that defines the grammatical structure of a language
3 a : a grammar textbook
b : speech or writing evaluated according to its conformity to grammatical rules
appalled at the bad grammar of college students
4 : the principles or rules of an art, science, or technique
a grammar of the theater
; also : a set of such principles or rules
Grammar is the ways that words can be put together in order to make sentences.
He doesn't have mastery of the basic rules of grammar.
===================================================
Context :
noun
1.the parts of a written or spoken statement that precede or follow a specific word or passage, usually influencing its meaning or effect:
You have misinterpreted my remark because you took it out of context.
the set of circumstances or facts that surround a particular event, situation, etc.
the parts of a discourse that surround a word or passage and can throw light on its meaning
the interrelated conditions in which something exists or occurs : environment, setting
the historical context of the war
Examples of context in a Sentence
… it was Dickens who first used the word 'detective' in a literary context … —John Mullan, How Novels Work, 2006
Entrepreneurship and civil freedoms depend on a context of civil order, predictability, and individual security. —Susan L. Woodward, Balkan Tragedy, 1995
… the old building, its original acre, inside its high outer wall, was immune to change, out of context and out of time. —Harriet Doerr, The Tiger in the Grass, 1995
We need to look at the event within the larger context of world history.
The book puts these events in their proper historical and social contexts.
We need to consider these events in context.
the situation within which something exists or happens, and that can help explain it:
the text or speech that comes immediately before and after a particular phrase or piece of text and helps to explain its meaning:
the influences and events related to a particular event or situation:
the text or speech that comes immediately before and after a particular phrase or piece of text and that influence how it is used and what it means
You have an obvious dysfunction in reading and comprehension as your interpretation is totally taken out of contextYep, thanks. Confirms everything I've said.
And that's why context and interpretation need the rules of grammar to make sure they behave.You have an obvious dysfunction in reading and comprehension as your interpretation is totally taken out of context
My thoughts:Beginning with Mt.24:31:
And He will send His angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather His ELECT from the four winds [Israel - on earth], from one end of the heavens to the other [The Church Jesus will rapture before the seven year tribulation begins]. How did those ELECT get into heaven? Read on to find out.
Jn.14:2-4 and 28:
"In my Father's house are many mansions; if it were not so, I would have told you. I am going there to prepare a place for you [See Jn.20:17]. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you to be with me that you also may be where I am. You know the way to the place where I am going." [Jn.14:2-4].
"You heard me say, 'I am going away and I am coming back to you.' If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I." [Jn.14:28].
The Scriptures tell us where we all go, who belong to Christ, after the death of our bodies:
"We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord." As recorded in 2 Cor.5:8, confirming Ecc.12:7. Which is, in and of itself, conclusive to the fact that Jesus is not going to let the rest of His Church remain on earth to go through the seven year tribulation, when He returns for those of us who are still alive, waiting for His appearing, in 1 Thess.4:17. Since He raises all those who have died, to be with Him, immediately after their physical death, for more than 2,000 years.
A look at 1 Thess.4:13-18:
The Thessalonians were very concerned about those among them who had died, that they would not be gathered together with the rest of them when Jesus returned. Paul assures them in vs 13-14 that they will all be returning with Christ from heaven, where they have been since He raised them up to be with Him, the day they died physically, according to 2 Cor.5:6-8.
"We believe that Jesus died and rose again and so we believe that God will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in Him [Died physically]. Vs 14.
"According to the Lord's own word [Scriptural truth as to the fact that Jesus taught there was to be a pre-trib rapture of the Church, as recorded in Jn.14:2-4 and 28], we tell you that we who are still alive, who are left to the coming of the Lord, will certainly not precede those who have fallen asleep." Vs 15. An assurance by Paul to the Thessalonians that the dead in Christ had already been raised from the dead before, and were already with Christ when He returns for all those left on earth alive at His coming.
Because they have already been raised, each in his/her own turn, according to 1 Cor.15:23. That is the very reason it is not documented as a resurrection in the Scriptures.
"For the Lord Himself will come down from heaven [With all His saints [Church], according to vs 14], with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first" [Paul again assures them, as seen in verses 13-14, they were already previously raised once before, each in his/her own turn, as they died, for more than 2,000 years]. Vs 16.
"After that, we who are still alive and are left will be CAUGHT UP [raptured] together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the sky. And so we will be with the Lord forever." Vs 17. Where we proceed with Jesus to our Father in heaven as He promised us in Jn.14:2-4 and 28.
"Therefore encourage each other with these words." Vs 18.
The precise timing of the rapture of the Church in 2 Thess.2:1-8:
"Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to Him, we ask you, brothers, not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by some prophecy, report or letter supposed to have come from us, saying that the Day of the Lord [The 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation of Dan.9:27] has already come." 2 Thess.2:1-2. Which is a direct reference to 1 Thess.4:17 and the theme of Paul's entire pre-trib rapture message in 2 Thess.2:1-8. When we will be CAUGHT UP TOGETHER WITH THEM IN THE CLOUDS TO MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR. [Parenthetics mine].
The "Day of the Lord" Paul refers to in vs 2, alludes to Dan.9:27, when God will intervene into the affairs of man, culminating in the second coming of Jesus to the earth. In that passage of Scripture, the Day of the Lord is triggered by the "he" who "confirms a covenant [An agreement] for one Week" [The Day of the Lord/ 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation], who is the Antichrist. The second, and same "he," who stops Israel from the offerings and sacrificing in the temple of God, and the third, and same "he," who breaks his covenant in the middle of the Week [After 3.5 of the 7 year total], and sets up the abomination of desolation Jesus referred to in Mt.24:15, in His Olivet Discourse, about the sign of His second coming, and of the end of the age.
In verse 3: "Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that Day [The Day of the Lord, the 70th and final Week, the seven year tribulation] WILL NOT COME, until the "apostasia" [Greek term in which the original translation was "TO DEPART, or DEPARTURE." meaning, the RAPTURE of the Church occurs FIRST, BEFORE THE DAY OF LORD] occurs and the man of lawlessness [The Antichrist, all three of the "he's" in Dan.9:27] is revealed [Who triggers the Day of the Lord/ the 70th and final Week/ the seven year tribulation], the man doomed to destruction." Which reveals the "apostasia" [DEPARTURE] will take place before the Antichrist is revealed, who triggers the 70th Week/seven year tribulation. Confirmed in verses 7 and 8 below.
Translation History of apostasia and discessio: By: Thomas Ice, PhD
The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either " departure" or " departing." They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608) . This supports the notion that the word truly means " departure." In fact, Jerome' s Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the time of 325 A.D. renders apostasia with the word, "discessio," meaning "DEPARTURE." Why was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of " departure" in 1611 A.D.? [It is more than likely due to overzealous RCC scribes who altered the original wording of vs 3. to accommodate their teachings of Amillenialism, which rejects both the pre-trib rapture of the Church as well as Jesus Millennial reign her on earth].
Theodore Beza, the Swiss reformer was the first to transliterate apostasia and create a new word, rather than translate it as others had done. The translators of the King James Version were the first to introduce the new rendering of apostasia as " falling away." Most English translators have followed the KJV and Beza in departing from translating apostasia as " departure." No reason was ever given.
"He [The Antichrist] will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God's temple, proclaiming himself to be God." Vs 4. [The abomination of desolation, confirming Dan.9:27 and Mt.24:15]. See also 2 Thess.2:4.
The rapture of the Church and verse 3 confirmed:
In verse 7: "For the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so until he [The saints - Church] is taken out of the way."
The "he" who will be taken out of the way, is the one body of Christ, who bear the Holy Spirit within each of us [Eph.1:13-14], the Church of Jesus Christ. The very same as those who will participate in the "apostasia," the "departure," [the rapture] of the Church, in vs 3. Immediately following that:
In verse 8: "And then the lawless one [The antichrist] will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will overthrow with the breath of His mouth and destroy by the splendor of His coming." Vs 8. [See Rev.19:17-21].
The antichrist is found in all three of the "he's" in Dan. 9:27, confirmed by Jesus in Mt.24:15; Mk.13:14 and by Paul, in 2 Thess.2:3, 4 and 8.
From the above Scriptural facts, there can be only one proper interpretation for the timing of the rapture of the Church, which will be immediately preceding the 70th and final/7 year tribulation, triggered by the antichrist, all three of the "he's" in Dan.9:27. Seen also as the first of the four horsemen of the apocalypse, riding the white horse, in the first of the seven seals, in Rev.6:2. There is no "pre-wrath" or post-trib rapture taught in the Scriptures.
Other verses pertaining to the rapture of the Church: 1 Thess.1:10; 1 Thess.5:9; Rev.3:10 and Rev.4:1-2. Of the saints [Church] returning with Christ from their marriage in heaven, in Rev.19:7, 8 and 14; Jude 14 and Zech.14:4-5/
The difference between the rapture of the Church and the second coming of Christ:
http://deeperwalk.lefora.com/2009/12/19 ... f-t/#post0
All parenthetics mine.
God Bless!
Quasar92
Has the world said "peace and safety" for 1600 years since the four century? The falling away in 2thessalonians - is one of three pre-requirements for the Day of the Lord - so it cannot be isolated from the peace and safety that turns to sudden destruction - when the the Day of the Lord begins in 1thessalonians5.The falling away began in the fourth century.
The early church believed that the imperial Roman empire, under which the church was then living, was the restrainer which would eventually be "taken out of the way", but which was forestalling the emergence of the "holy" Roman empire, which Paul describes as the lawless one which would ultimately descend into apostasy. Notice in the related verses in 2 Thess. 2 that Paul does not reveal the identity of the restrainer. If Paul had believed that the Holy Spirit or the Church was the restrainer, there would have been no reason for him not to explicitly name either one. But Paul did have a reason. John Chrysostom, an apologist of the later early post-apostolic era, reveals it:
"Because if he meant to say the Spirit, he would not have spoken obscurely, but plainly, that even now the grace of the Spirit, that is the gifts, withhold him...But because he said this of the Roman empire, he naturally glanced at it, and speaks covertly and darkly. For he did not wish to bring upon himself superfluous enmities, and useless dangers. For if he had said that after a little while the Roman empire would be dissolved, they would immediately have even overwhelmed him, as a pestilent person, and all the faithful, as living and warring to this end."
Paul did not wish to jeopardize the Church by attracting the attention of the Roman authorities.
History subsequently confirmed the validity of Paul's inspired prescience.
There's nothing about peace and safety in my post. Please provide your citation.Has the world said "peace and safety" for 1600 years since the four century? The falling away in 2thessalonians - is one of three pre-requirements for the Day of the Lord - so it cannot be isolated from the peace and safety that turns to sudden destruction - when the the Day of the Lord begins in 1thessalonians5.
The conditions right before the Day of the Lord have to happen together.
1. The world saying peace and safety.
2. The falling away
3. The person going into the the temple, sitting, claiming to be God.
I know you did not address it. What I am saying to you is think it through again. You should be looking at it as one scenario where all three things takes place together and lead right into the Day of the Lord. The peace and safety, the falling away, the going into the temple claiming to be God.There's nothing about peace and safety in my post. Please provide your citation.
I know you did not address it. What I am saying to you is think it through again. You should be looking at it as one scenario where all three things takes place together and lead right into the Day of the Lord. The peace and safety, the falling away, the going into the temple claiming to be God.
1Thessalonians4 the resurrection/rapture.
Then Paul starts talking about the time when it will take place in 1Thessalonians5, as right before the Day of Lord and Christians not being appointed unto wrath that suddenly takes place when the peace and safety fails. The resurrection/rapture is verse 9-11.
Then, in a follow up, in 2Thessalonians2:2, Paul give some more information, because the Thessalonians heard rumors that the Day of the Lord has started already - something they were told about earlier in 1Thessalonians5 as a factor concerning the resurrection/rapture.
The additional information is (1) the falling away and (2) the person going into the temple, sitting, claiming to be God.
So all three things have to take place together, connected; the peace and safety illusion, the great falling away, and the person going into the temple, sitting, claiming to be God.
It can't be one broad timeframe over history. It has to be pinpointed to one generation. And the scenario has to be a generation when the temple is rebuilt. Right now as of this very moment, there is no temple for the person to enter into. So the scenario has to include that the temple be rebuilt - if it applies in our generation. Which separately by the parable of the fig tree - it has to.
History confirmed Paul's inspired predictions.
It can't be rewritten.
1. The falling away was fulfilled in the apostasy of Roman papalism which began in the 4th century.History has not in any way fulfilled those three pre-requirements to the Day of the Lord, Paul was referring to in the text.
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