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And yet still no one has explained how universalism doesn’t contradict the verses I’ve given. Luke 12:10, Mark 3:29, Matthew 12:31 and Matthew 7:21. They always seem to go off on a different subject instead of addressing these verses.
Dear BNR: My suggestion to you is stand in the Blaze of His Presence & ask Him to disclose Himself to you.
That is so true.… There are those who have been indoctrinated to believe that yielding an inch on any doctrine is 'forsaking the faith' (though no such verse exists). Therefore they cling so tightly to the 'shouted lie' that they can never hear the Spirit as He 'whispers the truth'.
I pray for guidance and understanding of His word every day.
Which of these two options best describe where you are at with Universalism?The term “the ages” means forever which also means eternal. The definition of eternal not only means without beginning or end it can also mean without end. I already showed you examples in the scriptures that both forms of the word can mean eternal, everlasting, or forever. Aion does not typically imply a temporary situation.
And yet still no one has explained how universalism doesn’t contradict the verses I’ve given. Luke 12:10, Mark 3:29, Matthew 12:31 and Matthew 7:21. They always seem to go off on a different subject instead of addressing these verses.
In reference to every knee bowing and every tongue confessing Jesus Christ is Lord...Luke 12:10 - "...it shall not be forgiven." I know I always come back to this, but if that sin is never, ever forgiven, how is God to become All in all? But He is.
Mark 3:29 - I looked this one up in an interlinear format, and came across that pesky word "aionios." We can argue over this "forever," but the definition I find on Biblehub has both "agelong" and "eternal." Take your pick, but keep in mind that "eternal," "forever" and "forever and ever" are not set in stone.
Matthew 12:31 - As per Luke 12:10.
Matthew 7:21 - Does this verse state that those of "not every one" will NEVER do the the Will of the Father? No, it does not, and UR teaches that God will transform ALL into those that do. What the Word does state is that EVERY knee will bow, EVERY tongue confess...and God will be All in all.
In reference to every knee bowing and every tongue confessing Jesus Christ is Lord...
No one can say "Jesus is Lord" except by the Holy Spirit.
So how is it that everyone "in heaven and on earth and under the earth" will "acknowledge" Jesus Christ as Lord? Only by the indwelling Spirit. Who has the indwelling Spirit?
1 Corinthians 12:3
Therefore I want you to know that no one who is speaking by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus be cursed,” and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except by the Holy Spirit.
Philippians 2:9-11
Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father.
Luke 12:10 - "...it shall not be forgiven." I know I always come back to this, but if that sin is never, ever forgiven, how is God to become All in all? But He is.
Mark 3:29 - I looked this one up in an interlinear format, and came across that pesky word "aionios." We can argue over this "forever," but the definition I find on Biblehub has both "agelong" and "eternal." Take your pick, but keep in mind that "eternal," "forever" and "forever and ever" are not set in stone.
Matthew 12:31 - As per Luke 12:10.
Matthew 7:21 - Does this verse state that those of "not every one" will NEVER do the the Will of the Father? No, it does not, and UR teaches that God will transform ALL into those that do. What the Word does state is that EVERY knee will bow, EVERY tongue confess...and God will be All in all.
In reference to every knee bowing and every tongue confessing Jesus Christ is Lord...
No one can say "Jesus is Lord" except by the Holy Spirit.
So how is it that everyone "in heaven and on earth and under the earth" will "acknowledge" Jesus Christ as Lord? Only by the indwelling Spirit. Who has the indwelling Spirit?
1 Corinthians 12:3
Therefore I want you to know that no one who is speaking by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus be cursed,” and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except by the Holy Spirit.
Philippians 2:9-11
Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father.
Sorry. I wondered if my post was clear, or if some might mistake what I had written.Do you limit the Holy Spirit so much? Just as I, a confident atheist, was dragged into the Kingdom, almost kicking and screaming...so will ALL be remade, just as Jesus the Christ boasted that He has/will make ALL things new, into new beings willing and able to bow the knee and confess with the tongue. Do you doubt this?
Luke 12:10 - "...it shall not be forgiven." I know I always come back to this, but if that sin is never, ever forgiven, how is God to become All in all? But He is.
Mark 3:29 - I looked this one up in an interlinear format, and came across that pesky word "aionios." We can argue over this "forever," but the definition I find on Biblehub has both "agelong" and "eternal." Take your pick, but keep in mind that "eternal," "forever" and "forever and ever" are not set in stone.
Matthew 12:31 - As per Luke 12:10.
Matthew 7:21 - Does this verse state that those of "not every one" will NEVER do the the Will of the Father? No, it does not, and UR teaches that God will transform ALL into those that do. What the Word does state is that EVERY knee will bow, EVERY tongue confess...and God will be All in all.
I had to read your post a couple of times before deciding that's what you meant. After the 'first read' I just thought; "Oh, Steve just backslid."Sorry. I wondered if my post was clear, or if some might mistake what I had written.
I edited my question by adding my obvious answer.
Who has the indwelling Spirit? (the redeemed of the Lord)
Therefore all will be restored as indicated by the needed Holy Spirit to make the declaration that Jesus Christ is Lord.
Testimony.
While I was involved in prison ministry I was dealing with a disruptor in one of our meetings. I asked him to say "Jesus Christ is Lord." He couldn't do it. I pressed him to say it. After all it was "just four words." Why should that be a problem? He rattled on and on with all the reasons he couldn't say it. I had to interrupt him each time to request he say it. He finally got up and stormed out of the room and we were free of the distraction. I had discerned that there was a spirit at work in him. This test seemed to prove it.
What verse are you referring to saying that God is all in all? In what context is that verse referring to? Ephesians 1:22 is referring to His church. Ephesians 4:4-6 May be referring to His church or may be referring to God’s reign. It’s hard to say exactly.
“And He put all things in subjection under His feet, and gave Him as head over all things to the church, which is His body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all.”
Ephesians 1:22-23 NASB
“There is one body and one Spirit, just as also you were called in one hope of your calling; one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all.”
Ephesians 4:4-6 NASB
So this phrase “all in all” does not negate what Jesus said in Luke 12:10 as it does not apply to all people according to the context in which it is used. All are not in the body and all who are under God’s reign are not promised to receive salvation. This is why universalism stands on shaky ground because it rests on extremely vague verses interpreted in such a way that it contradicts verses that are clearly and plainly stated. There is no question about what Luke 12:10 is referring to exactly.
As for Mark 3:29, the scriptures cannot contradict themselves. These are parallel verses to Luke 12;10 and Matthew 12:31-32. If Luke 12:10 says blasphemy against the Spirit will not be forgiven and Matthew 12:31 says the exact same thing then the terms aion and aionis cannot refer to a temporary situation. The way universalists interpret these verses makes them contradictory to one another instead of interpreting them the only way that they are not contradictory to one another.
Matthew 7:21
“"Not everyone who says to Me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who is in heaven will enter. Many will say to Me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many miracles?' And then I will declare to them, 'I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.'”
Matthew 7:21-23 NASB
If universalists are correct then all who say to Him Lord Lord will enter heaven and again Luke 12:10 and Matthew 12:31 are contradicted. It doesn’t line up with all scripture without contradiction.
Dear BNR: welcome back to the glorious Gospel proclaiming Jesus Christ as Lord of all. Yes, my friend, every last knee, every last mouth, in all dimensions proclaiming Him Lord in union with His lovely Name.
God, All In All
Please notice the word IN/EN!
I had to read your post a couple of times before deciding that's what you meant. After the 'first read' I just thought; "Oh, Steve just backslid."
I've heard someone else on CF say something about an unbeliever 'literally' can't say those four words. I still don't buy it as a litmus. I guess I need to try it out next time I talk to my atheist attorney.
Dear BNR: Hopefully you can grasp what union IN/EN the Christ entails! This confession is NOT by rote, or perfunctory genuflections.
1 Corinthians 15:28 And when all things have been subjected to Him, then the Son Himself will be made subject to Him who put all things under Him, so that God may be all in all.
Note
"All" not some, "pas" the radical all!
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