Gadarene
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- Apr 16, 2012
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Okay.
Is this the one? https://www.cdc.gov/violenceprevention/pdf/sv-datasheet-a.pdf
Because it says:
• Nearly 1 in 5 (18.3%) women and 1 in 71 men (1.4%) reported experiencing rape at some time in their lives.
Why do you think that the only statistic that matters in instances where men are the victims are the ones in which they are made to penetrate someone else?
Well, because it's rape, it's more common usually than men being raped by penetration, and when you actually include those figures you notice that for that year, e.g., there was *parity* in rape of women and made-to-penetrate cases involving male victims. I.e. rape had gender parity. And that year's survey also notes that women are the predominant rapists of men.
Approximately 1 in 71 men in the United States (1.4%) reported having been raped in his lifetime, which translates to almost 1.6 million men in the United States (Table 2.2).
Yes, it does say that only 4.8% of men were made to penetrate someone, but like I said before, are you really claiming that this is the only way a man can be raped?
No, but I'm claiming it is rape, which means the 1in 71 stat you uncritically quoted is therefore way too low.
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