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The Possible Year of the Second Coming in 2027 AD Based on the Jubilee Year Cycles and the 1290 and

flgftlc

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No, you're on here telling us that you've worked out a possible year for our Lord's return.
Next year's a possible year, or the year after, or 5 years after that. Then again, some of might be dead by next week, and we'll see him a lot sooner.

Next year is not a possible year of the Lord's return, for we know what events must first take place before the second coming which haven't happened yet. Even Paul knew the order of events, when he said, "the Lord will not come UNTIL". But, it's hard to know the order of timings when you choose to stick your head in the sand and blindfold yourself and make it a point to not know. Whatever, do as you please.
 
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1stcenturylady

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God is outside time and knows all things. The second coming was planned from the beginning - certainly long before we produced our man made calendars.

I suppose it was, and then He made all the feasts exactly on the days He did to correspond.
 
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Butch5

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I think the dates are a bit off. Consider Daniel's 70 weeks. They would be 500 years not 490. Remember you have to add in the Jubilee years.
 
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flgftlc

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I think the dates are a bit off. Consider Daniel's 70 weeks. They would be 500 years not 490. Remember you have to add in the Jubilee years.

Can't you multiply? A week is seven days. Therefore, seven times seventy is 490.
 
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Butch5

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Can't you multiply? A week is seven days. Therefore, seven times seventy is 490.
Yeah, I can multiply. No need to be ignorant. If you're familiar with the calendar the Jews were told to work the land for 6 years and let it rest on the seventh. They were to do this for seven times and then there was the year of Jubilee, the fiftieth year. So, after every week of years there was one Jubilee year. So, if there are 70 seventy weeks there is a Jubilee year after each week. That means there are 10 jubilee years in seventy weeks, 70x7=490. 490+10=500.
 
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rturner76

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I understand this is a safe space for people to explore controversial theology so I am not trying to shut down anybodies right to express their views. However, respectfully I must quote the New Testament (NIV) Matthew 24:36 “But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father." So you see even Christ himself could not predict "the day or the hour." How is it that any mere human being on Earth can calculate this date from the writings of Daniel, Revelation, or any other Biblical text? I must assume that the people who predict this date believe what the Bible says, as they make this prediction from the books of the Bible. So then are we to assume that the people who predict this way believe that Christ is lying or mistaken when he says "but only the Father" knows?
 
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Butch5

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Actually, the verse you quoted isn't really translated as well as it could be. The Greek word translated "knows" is actually in the Greek perfect tense. This indicates a past completed action whose results continue to the present. A better translation would be, 'no one has known the day or the hour'. This speaking of the past. It has no bearing on the future. Jesus didn't say no one will ever know the day or the hour. Even if one takes the KJV reading as it is, it is in the present tense and would only indicate that know one at that present time knew the day or the hour, again, nothing is said of the future. However, that it should be known is, I think, implied in the rest of the statement. Jesus told the apostles to become ready. How does one become ready if they don't know the time?
 
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flgftlc

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That's nonsensical. Why would you add the number of Jubilees to a prophecy that is meant to convey only 490 years? Its arbitrary. It would be like me saying, I am coming in 14 days, and you arbitrarily adding 2 days because there were two Mondays in my 14 days. Its nonsensical.
 
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Butch5

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It's not. If God had said in 490 years, then you wouldn't add the Jubilee years. However, He said in 70 weeks. According to the calendar after seven weeks there would be one year of Jubilee. That's how God had told them to recon time. As they would normally go along they should have added the Jubilee year after every seven weeks. Week two wouldn't begin until after the first year of Jubilee.

Suppose there was an event 250 years from now and you were trying to figure out how many days that was. Wouldn't you add the days of the leap years? You'd add one day for each leap year, correct?
 
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flgftlc

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No.
 
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rturner76

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Why would you need to be ready if you will know the time. Wouldn't he say "get ready when you know the time"? No he is saying "be ready" because you do NOT know the time. In essence, always be ready cause you never know when it will happen. The proof of this is further on in the chapter. v 38-39 "For in the days before the flood, people were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, up to the day Noah entered the ark; 39and they knew nothing about what would happen until the flood came and took them all away. That is how it will be at the coming of the Son of Man. He says this right after he says "But about that day or hour no one knows" How can you say it will be known when the Bible clearly says it will NOT be known? Do you believe the Bible would contradict itself or that Christ is not being truthful?
 
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gordonhooker

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It is a bit of a stretch to try and say that because the verb used was a perfect that it negates the meaning of the text in the future just to fit ones own belief I think they refer to that as eisegesis.
 
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Butch5

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Again, "know" in the Greek text is in the perfect tense. It's translated 'has known'. Jesus was telling the apostles they haven't know. That's past tense. It says nothing about the future. In verses you quoted who didn't know about the coming judgment, Noah or the people? Noah was building the ark so he knew when it was completed. It was the people who were eating and drinking and carrying on. Note the parable that Jesus tells the apostles about the thief.

42 Watch therefore: for ye know not what hour your Lord doth come.
43 But know this, that if the goodman of the house had known in what watch the thief would come, he would have watched, and would not have suffered his house to be broken up.
44 Therefore be ye also ready: for in such an hour as ye think not the Son of man cometh.
(Matt. 24:42-44 KJV)

The English word "be" may indicate a static state, however, the Greek word that is translated "be" literally means to become, or to come into being. Jesus told the disciples to become ready.
 
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Butch5

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It is a bit of a stretch to try and say that because the verb used was a perfect that it negates the meaning of the text in the future just to fit ones own belief I think they refer to that as eisegesis.

Interesting... did you went to the store tomorrow? The perfect tense is past tense, not future. To apply a past tense verb to the future just to fit one's own belief, I think they refer to that as eisegesis.
 
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rturner76

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Thank you for proving my point, what is he saying here?
Therefore be ye also ready: for in such an hour as ye think not
ye think not the hour ie you don't know the hour

and yes it was the people who were eating and drinking because they did not know the flood was coming. He wasn't talking about Noah, he was talking about the people who did not know. Jesus said:
people were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, up to the day Noah entered the ark; 39and they knew nothing about what would happen until the flood came and took them

Now is Jesus wrong or are you?
 
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YouAreAwesome

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The problem with applying prophetic symbolism is in it's vast possibilities -- it can quite literally apply to many things, see here for example. However, the key to Revelation is found in the first verse "the things which must soon take place". Those reading John's Revelation would have applied his visions to the destruction of the temple in 70AD. Of course we can find all sorts of reasons to apply the apocalyptic books to ourselves -- nearly every generation has tried (see here). Unfortunately, with a defeatist-end-times view of the world, christians believe the world is spiralling into evil. On the contrary, even in the last 20 years there's less poverty, less child labour, less income spent on food, lower infant mortality rates, less teen births, lower violent crime rates and I could go on... the point is, the world is actually improving (despite the way christians like to focus on how it is getting worse). A victorious eschatology is a biblical eschatology. God is defeating the devil, not the other way around.

I mean, even the foundation of the dating method is completely false. The "day-year" principle is simply not in the bible. Show me one place in the bible where the word day actually means year. It's not there. I agree we can have a week of years meaning seven years, but we can't have a week of days to mean a week of years. The principle is a feel-good tool to make us feel important 2000 years later... we are important! But not because of a false day-year principle.
 
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Butch5

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Did you read my other post. The proper translation is become ready.

He didn't tell everyone to become ready He told the apostles. So, like Noah they should become ready.

Neither, I would submit that your understanding of what Jesus said is wrong.
 
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gordonhooker

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Interesting... did you went to the store tomorrow? The perfect tense is past tense, not future. To apply a past tense verb to the future just to fit one's own belief, I think they refer to that as eisegesis.

No.... but it doesn't mean I can't go to the store tomorrow, nor does it mean that I won't not know tomorrow that which I don't know today. Hence why I believe you are using eisegesis instead of exegesis, you are manipulating the text to suit your belief.
 
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