It is confusing, I don't blame you. The ancient hebrew language did not have a word to describe indentured servitude.
You asked a question stated in a general form of "slave" and "corporal punishment". Your question didn't ask specifically about the verse in question, so I'm not confused by when the Bible means slave and when it means indentured servant. Also, there were different rules for the two different things, so slaves weren't treated the same way as indentured servants, which is another distinction that should be made between the two.
The thing is, we're arguing about the most moral way to treat people that are in a position that it was immoral to put them in in the first place. You could still pay slaves you purchased, you could still incentivize work for indentured servants, but that would ruin the whole point of having an exploited, and cheap workforce.
In war, it was an act of mercy for the Israelites to enslave defeated enemies. The only other option they had was to kill them. Think about it. If you were defeated in battle would you rather be killed or become a slave who was protected by jewish law?
You have a very warped view of the Old Testament, in my opinion. You accused me earlier or reading Bible verses cherrypicked and placed on "a website" but I'll let you know, I tried to read the Bible, cover to cover. I made it through a good chunk of the OT, but I couldn't make it past some of the worst stuff. As a kid I tried to read the NT from start to finish, but I only made it through a few books cause I was a lazy kid, admittedly. Now I use Biblegateway.com as my source when I want to look up a topic.
So an act of mercy, by the Israelites, who at times had just pretended to offer a peace treaty to a city, and then conquered it... No, they weren't good folk.
Thank you. You finally agree to my point and the point of the "moral argument " that objective morality cannot exist without a god. You don't believe in a god thus you cannot believe objective morality exists. Congratulations.
No, I don't believe in your warped definition of "objective". Again, I ask, is it an objective fact that the Earth is round, or is it a subjective opinion?
I agree. However, creating a purpose for yourself that is contrary to the purpose God gave you is an act of rebellion which is where sin originates. Christians define sin as rebellion against God's will. Of course you do not believe in God so sin cannot exist.
You're right. "Sin" brings with it a lot of "magical" connotations like it being hereditary and affecting the weather... I believe in wrongdoing would be the better word to use.
Ok. That is fine. So tell me, how would you define "good" and "bad"?
As I have stated in numerous posts, it is based on cooperation, which is motivated by fairness, which is balanced by the measure of suffering vs. pleasure. It is a complicated system that has all of these concepts intermingled. We cooperate to achieve a better balance of suffering vs. pleasure, but we have no reason to cooperate if it isn't fair. One person's suffering should balance out with another person's pleasure so that it achieves a larger amount of pleasure over all.
An example. You stated that rape is immoral because that is not the intended
purpose of sex. But that already demands a creator and a designer to state that there is a purpose, which makes your definition of morality tainted from the beginning in this argument. Instead, rape is wrong because the balance of the rapist's pleasure that he derives is minuscule to the amount of suffering that his victim endures. And people aren't going to cooperate with each other if some people are allowed to derive a little bit of pleasure at the great, great expense of others.
In contrast, a hypothetical situation. If I were to flick you in the nose, and it caused you no more suffering than a flick in the nose would, but it caused me to be happy and content for a whole year, then it would be immoral of you to not allow me to flick you in the nose.