cvanwey
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- May 10, 2018
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you are asking basic questions that logic itself answers. That is why I worry about your logic. You make questions that are so easy to answer that you should have already done so. This is what I mean by weak. In answering the question for you, it makes you look foolish. So again, I say. Just reread your posts and use logic, and answer for yourself those questions.
I continue to find your responses fascinating. My last post didn't ask any questions. My last post to you reiterated the following:
'morals are really no more 'absolute' than economics or politics. We are humans, with cognitive faculties, and have to get by regardless; if we wish to co-exist...'
My point being... Humans are stuck in the 'reality' that we do not operate in 'absolutes', in regards to 'right/wrong'. Even if there was a demonstrated all mighty God in the mix.
I've also already conceded your OP (partially), but with HUGE CAVEATS. See below...
When you quoted in your OP:
"1. There must be a universal moral law, or else: (a) Moral disagreements would make no
sense, as we all assume they do. (b) All moral criticisms would be meaningless (e.g.,
“The Nazis were wrong.”). (c) It is unnecessary to keep promises or treaties, as we all
assume that it is. (d) We would not make excuses for breaking the moral law, as we all
do."
I agree only to a certain extent. Only in the sense that there seems to exist no actual 'standard', as one human's opinion is merely no better than any others.
HOWEVER, and this is a huge however... There exists (2) problems here, as I see it:
1. There does not necessary have to be a 'MUST'. The concept of a moral absolute is embedded in the idea of this 'necessary must.' But in reality, the fact that humans have the ability to assume a necessary must, does not mean this 'must', must exist We would again be begging the question.
2. Even IF this must, (i.e) God, did exist, why are morals then automatically 'absolute'? Because again, as I stated prior, this existing agent would have an opinion on right/wrong. And if I did not agree, and cited points supporting my opposing position with evidence, what makes this God's moral opinion still any better than mine? As I stated prior, it would seem that if this agent did exist, it would not matter if my opposing position was or was not justified. This moral agent would simply have the power to punish me for not agreeing with Him. Hence, possibly making Him a 'moral thug'.
So I now ask ONLY one question again. Feel free to respond and openly present my 'logic' as 'foolish.'
**** A female wishes to become a church leader. A male member of this same church tells her that God told him that she cannot lead. Should she believe him? ****
Hint: This is the crux of my entire stance... Humans wrote stuff in a book (the Bible), and appear to impose their own opinions about morality, and use the 'God card.' In regards to the question above, when 'Sal' wrote 1 Timothy 2:11-12, was it more likely he wrote of his own opinion, or did God actually intervene? (rhetorical question here)... You already know my position
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