That is going too far, as Messianic Judaism does not oppose the Torah. Messianic Judaism opposes a misinterpretation of the Torah.
As long as anything contradicts the early Christian-based assumptions of missionary-based Jewish evangelism, with the goal of making Jews into Christians, you will regard it as a misinterpretation. You've made that fairly clear.
I believe the script needs to be flipped--we need to once again realize that the mission described in the Bible is that of Israel bringing Gentiles to know YHWH by assimilating the Gentile nations. Specifically, the nations would join themselves to the Jewish sect that followed Yeshua, and identified him as Mashiach.
One law theology teaches that Gentiles who believe on Jesus are obligated to the same Mosaic laws as the children of Israel.
More to the point, what you like to label as "One Law Theology" teaches that Gentiles who claim to follow the Jewish Mashiach ought to act like they follow the Jewish Mashiach. He taught his disciples to do all things that he had commanded, and he instructed them to go and make disciples of the nation, teaching
THEM to likewise do all things that he had instructed them. The foundational documents of the Messianic Movement demonstrate that the expectation existed that Messianics would increase the numbers of Israel by integrating Gentiles into their sectarian group.
The basis of this belief is taking verses out of context.
Well... "... eye of the beholder," and all that.
The belief is that the Tenakh says there is one law for Israel, and the stranger/alien. Therefore what applies to Israel applies to Gentiles who are sojourning with Israel.
Basically, yes. Would you prefer Gentiles who join themselves to Israel to insist that the Jews must follow sharia law?
Let's be real about this. Paul says, in strongly worded language, that Gentiles are joined to Israel, using both agricultural and political metaphors. Would you think these Gentiles were supposed to be engrafted to Israel, and replace the Torah of God with their own national ethos? Or does it make more sense to expect these Gentiles to learn the Torah, as they exclaim, "Surely this great nation is a wise and understanding people!"
Devarim/Deuteronomy 4:6-8 said:
Therefore be careful to observe [Torah], for this [is] your wisdom and your understanding in the sight of the peoples who will hear all these statutes, and say, "Surely this great nation [is] a wise and understanding people!"
For what great nation [is there] that has God near to it, as YHWH our God [is] to us, for whatever [reason] we may call upon Him? And what great nation [is there] that has [such] statutes and righteous judgments as are in all this law which I set before you this day?
I find it odd that you quote Moshe (Bamidbar/Numbers 15:14,15). You quote Sha'ul (Ephesians 2:12-15). Then you say... "There are many errors to this."
I hope I've misunderstood you, but you seem to have a problem with the Scriptures, not with those who follow them.
The first error is the assumption that the Gentiles are sojourning with Israel. Normally this is phrased as, the Gentiles who believe on the Jewish Messiah are now part of the commonwealth of Israel.
Indeed. Aligning one's self with Israel is likened to "sojourning" with Israel in this world. As opposed to being an enemy. Would you prefer we went back to the traditional Church postures? For that is precisely the position of those who have recently repudiated Gentile inclusion. I'll treat that more fully in another thread.
The verse starts by saying the Gentiles were excluded from the commonwealth of Israel. That means that at the time before Yeshua, even those who were strangers (Gentiles) living among Israel and could bring an offering to the Temple, these Gentiles were still excluded from the commonwealth of Israel.
I think that is just foolishness. Plainly, Gentiles who were excluded were excluded. Those few who joined themselves to Israel are not in view. If they were bringing sacrifices, then they were "clean" and "included".
You need to recognize a little thing called "a generalization". The exclusion came from community standards and prejudices that were designed to keep Gentiles away from joining Israel--a "circle the wagons" approach to being "separate" from the nations. Basically, Ephesians 2 was written explicitly to counter the sort of divisiveness you are bring to the table.
Being saved as a Gentile didnt somehow alter this commandment.
What commandment? You mean the one about their being one law for both native-born and for sojourners traveling with Israel?
Unsaved Gentiles were allowed to bring a sacrifice while excluded from the commonwealth.
You'll have to show me an instance or two where that actually happens before I consider that claim.
The second issue is that the verse does not say Gentiles are now part of the commonwealth of Israel but rather, they were brought near. Being brought near means the Gentiles now have the hope. That hope come from belief in Messiah who is the covenant of promise to Israel.
This is something I don't miss about dispensationalism--getting caught up in private interpretations of single words while missing the context of the entire chapter and book. Let's read this carefully...
Once You Were...
Ephesians 2:11 said:
Therefore remember that you, once Gentiles in the flesh--who are called Uncircumcision by what is called the Circumcision made in the flesh by hands--that at that time you were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.
Several observations to make here regarding the primary audience being addressed:
- They were once Gentiles. This certainly does suggest that they are now no longer Gentiles. Wouldn't you agree?
- At the time they were identified as "Uncircumcision", they were without Messiah.
- Why were they without Messiah? Because they were "aliens from the commonwealth of Israel" and "strangers from the covenants of Promise".
- As a result of being "not-Israel", they were without hope, and without God in the world. (Clearly, this condition would not exist for those converts who had already joined themselves to Israel and the worship of YHWH.
But Now You Are...
Ephesians 2:13-14 NKJV said:
But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far off have been brought near by the blood of Christ. For He Himself is our peace, who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of separation
This is the contrast to the previously described situation...
- Being "in Messiah" has terminated the "aliens and strangers" status, and made the readers "brought near".
- "Brought near" to what? The contrast tells us that it is Israel. The Gentile readers have experienced a change of state in regards to Israel--what we might call "conversion".
- "For he is our peace". Most gloss over this, thinking that the peace has been effected between God and man. I would suggest that the peace needing to be addressed by Sha'ul is the reconciliation between Jews and Gentiles, bringing them together into one body.
- The middle wall of partition was about the wall that delineated the "Court of the Gentiles" from the area in the Temple that was reserved for Jewish access.
What Needed to Be Abolished, and Why?
Traditional Christian interpretation tells us that what needed to be destroyed was the Torah. Why? So that humanity could be reconciled to God. But that isn't what this passage is saying, at all!
Ephesians 2:15-16 NKJV said:
having abolished in His flesh the enmity, [that is], the law of commandments [contained] in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man [from] the two, [thus] making peace, and that He might reconcile them both to God in one body through the cross, thereby putting to death the enmity.
- What did Yeshua abolish? An enmity. Somebody had an animosity going that prevented somebody else from being reconciled to God.
- This animosity was reinforced by a "law of commandments in ordinances". Most people stop at the word "law", and assume that the Torah is in view here. But this phrase does not refer to the Torah. "Law" and "commandments" are both modifiers of "ordinances". But in this case, "ordinances" translates the Greek word "dogma", a word that is never used in reference to the Torah--not in the Messianic Writings, and not in the LXX.
The dogma here is the traditional community prejudice against Gentiles--the sort of dogma that brought Kefa to tell Cornelius, "You know how unlawful it is for a Jewish man to keep company with or go to one of another nation (Acts 10:28, NKJV). There is no law anywhere in Torah that says a Jew cannot keep company with a Gentile--that is a rabbinic prohibition!
- Now, by removing the rabbinic prohibition, and thus the anti-Gentile prejudice, what happens? Gentiles are allowed to flow into Israel, where there is access to the God of Israel! This is in full accord with both Isaiah and Micah, who both state:
Many people shall come and say, "Come, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob. He will teach us His ways, and we shall walk in His paths."
For out of Zion shall go forth the law, And the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.
(Isaiah 2:3; Micah 4:2 NKJV)
This takes us right back to Yeshua's instruction to, "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all things that I have commanded you."
The goal of Israel has always been to serve as the core, the critical mass, the nuclear fissionable material, that would serve as the catalyst to being all nations INTO itself, and join themselves to YHWH. The purpose of setting Israel apart was not simply to serve the selfish desire of being eternally "different". Israel was set apart in order that its light--the light of Hashem and His Torah--might shine the more brightly, and attract the nations to God. Exclusiveness has nothing to do with Israel's calling.
As a Result...
As a result of destroying the animosity that was once ensconced in rabbinic decrees and social prejudice, the Gentiles have been allowed free access to... to what? Most people want to gloss over that detail, and pretend the text says, "free access to God". But that isn't what it says.
Ephesians 2:17 NKJV said:
And He came and preached peace to you who were afar off and to those who were near.
Yeshua came for the purpose of bringing peace to both Jews (already near) and Gentiles (those who
once were far off. Because of Yeshua, we can effect reconciliation, and become one community, one people. This is a Good Thing!
Ephesians 2:18 NKJV said:
For through Him we both have access by one Spirit to the Father.
Because of Yeshua, Gentiles can now align themselves with Israel, and join Israel as B'nei Elohim, serving alongside their Israeli brethren, as children of the same father.
But this position presupposes a few things.
1. Israel is the focus of the plan.
2. The "church" does not exist outside of Israel.
3. Gentiles are admitted as co-heirs and brothers, on equal footing, as part of b'nei Yisrael. This is the meaning of the next few verses...
(continued in the next post...)