Jamdoc
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- Oct 22, 2019
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Here's the point. The term is translated "Greece" because people thought it was "obvious" that it meant the historical Persian Empire and the Empire that followed it was Greece historically, so they translated the term that was used for Javan in Genesis and Chronicles and Ezekiel as Greece, because it fit the history.Daniel 8:20 The ram which thou sawest having two horns are the kings of Media and Persia. 21 And the rough goat is the king of Grecia: and the great horn that is between his eyes is the first king.
So, it's just a coincidence that a term translated as "Grecia" or "Greece" follows a reference to "the kings of Media and Persia"? We know that the Greek empire came into power after defeating the Medo-Persian empire, but somehow that isn't what Daniel 8:20-21 is referring to? I can't buy that at all. Even if you were correct about it referring to Javan instead (which you are not), how do you explain verse 20? How can that be anything besides a reference to the Medo-Persian empire?
It's a little like how some people now see "Rosh" in Ezekiel 38 as being "Russia" because it fits their view of who Gog is, even though rosh is a hebrew term that means "head" "chief" or "root" it means the primary in importance of a set. It is the "Chief Prince" of Meshech and Tubal, but since the 20th century had people interpret the then Godless communist Soviet Union as Magog... they take that term rosh, used 598 times in the bible as "head" "chief" or "root" ... and say "ah, this one time it means Russia"
If the term was always translated Greece, then sure, that'd be the correct term.
But because over half of the uses of the term are translated Javan, it is inconsistent and influenced by a historicist interpretation.
as for Daniel 8:20, it is the Persians, the problem is there has been multiple Persian Empires, including ones that existed after the Alexandrian Empire collapsed, the Parthians and the Sasanians, and Persia is now known as Iran today.
It's the assumption that the text is referring to the same Empire referred to in Nebuchadnezzar's dream.
THAT dream pertained to Nebuchadnezzar, it was shown to him because this was stuff that directly concerned Nebuchadnezzar, THIS vision, and Daniel 7 while we're at it, were NOT pertaining to Nebuchadnezzar specifically, they are pertaining to the end of the age.
But it's powered by assumption. "It's obvious" so they translate Javan as Greece, because "it's obvious it's about the historical empires", and then handwave discrepancies such as Gabriel saying the vision would take place at the time of the end, and that it would be the first king of Javan, and Alexander was not the first king but the 23rd. They also ignore that the little horn in Daniel 8 would stand up against the prince of princes (Jesus the Messiah). Jesus wasn't known, the Messiah had not come yet, during Antiochus' reign.
It is Antichrist who is the little horn that will stand up against the Prince of princes.
Gabriel is confirming that it's an end times vision. It is 3 references to the end of the age and the Indignation of God. The "appointed time" is to indicate to Daniel that this is not things that will happen now during Daniel's lifetime, as Daniel would assume. There's a current Persian Empire. Daniel had lived through a transition of power between the Babylonian Empire and the Persian Empire. Here Daniel was being told of a succession to the Persian Empire. Daniel's first thought would be, this is gonna happen really shortly, maybe in my lifetime. Gabriel is denying that. "It's going to happen in the end times, the end times is not now it's at an appointed time, and it is not for many days yet" That is how you can boil down the descriptions of timing in Daniel 8:17, 8:19, and 8:26, telling Daniel that the vision is for the end of the age, but the end of the age wouldn't be for a long time yet. Because if you get apocalyptic visions and an Angel telling you these things are the end of the world, first thought is gonna be "it's the end of the world now?" Gabriel was saying no, it's not the end of the world now.And 2 verses later it says "for at the time appointed the end shall be." which explains what that means. But, you don't seem to want to take that into consideration. It's not talking about it happening at the end of time, it's talking about it happening at the appointed time.
I'm using the context and finding historical discrepancies and saying "this isn't a perfect fit then, and I'm not forcing a square peg through a round hole, let's look at the text closer rather than assume it's correct and cut the corners off the square peg to force it to fit"I'm not dancing around anything, I'm taking history into account and I'm taking the context into account. You are interpreting the verse without taking either of those things into account.
On closer study, the text says the vision will happen at the end times, it will be the first king of Javan, and the little horn will stand against Jesus. This is about Antichrist. There the square peg fits through a square hole, because the little horn fits the little horn from Daniel 7, and stands against Jesus, and fits the vile man of Daniel 11, completely not just up to a certain verse and then suddenly we're talking about a future Antichrist when all the verses up until then were about Antiochus..
No, the bible isn't making a sudden 2200 year timeskip in the middle of a passage. It's just that none of Daniel 11 is about Antiochus.
I am serious. The text says end times and time of the end and last end of the indignation. That's specific. Daniel 11 has:No, it isn't. So, it's just somehow a coincidence that it references the nations of two successive historical world empires in Daniel 8:20-21 while not actually referring to those empires? Come on. Please be serious.
Yeah I don't think we're talking about second temple period if we're talking about the end times and making people white (salvation).35 And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.
Antiochus was a Greek, he worshiped the Greek gods, and put up statues of Zeus, the gods of his fathers.36 And the king shall do according to his will; and he shall exalt himself, and magnify himself above every god, and shall speak marvellous things against the God of gods, and shall prosper till the indignation be accomplished: for that that is determined shall be done.
37 Neither shall he regard the God of his fathers, nor the desire of women, nor regard any god: for he shall magnify himself above all.
and it says he'll prosper until the Indignation of God, and that last clause sounds a lot like "end of the age" language.
Here the vile man is said to worship an impersonal god, a god that was not worshiped by his ancestors. Antiochus worshiped Zeus, a god who was a person, not an impersonal god of forces, and it was a god that his ancestors also worshiped.38 But in his estate shall he honour the God of forces: and a god whom his fathers knew not shall he honour with gold, and silver, and with precious stones, and pleasant things.
yeah I'd say that the fact that the vision involves the wrath of God that it's not about historical empires at all. I don't see how Antiochus did anything that at all could be interpreted to casting the stars down to the ground (no I don't mean literal stars, it is a vision and Gabriel explains it) or rising up to the Prince of the host.LOL. It's not "kinda"! Are you kidding? It references kings of Media and Persia and Greece specifically. Any objective person who has a knowledge of history will immediate think of the Medo-Persian and Greek empires when reading that.
It outright says "for at the time appointed the end shall be." which shows it's talking about the end in relation to that prophecy, not to the literal end of time.
There is more mentioned in Daniel 8 than just Persia and Greece, so it's not necessarily referring to Persia and Greece when referring to the indignation of God.
Gabriel explains it as destroying the holy people (so as in Daniel 7 the little horn makes war against the saints), and stands against the Prince of princes.
is the Prince of princes/Prince of the host not Jesus?
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