The KJVO myth...

[Strong in Him]

You talk so much that you end up shooting yourself in the foot!

So, since I cannot easily read the KJV and understand the words perfectly, having to as you said earlier, use a dictionary or modern translations, I guess that means the KJV isn't so perfect after all.

Even Bible Highlighter can't easily understand the KJV - he has to sometimes rely on the "corrupt" versions to explain certain words.

 

[Strong in Him]

You deny what the verse plainly says. The Lord’s word are pure words… as silver tried in a furnace… purified seven times. What was purified seven times? The words of the Lord which are pure words.

1. Why would God's words need to be purified at all? He is pure, holy and perfect. Are you saying that 6 times God spoke impure words?
2. The Lord's words are AS, or like, silver that has been purified 7 times - the silver had been purified so often that it was perfect. In the Bible, 7 is a number of completion and perfection. The Psalmist is saying that the Lord's words are perfect.
He certainly does not say that a man made translation of the Bible needs to be purified 7 times and then IT will be perfect; that's called reading into the text.

 

[Strong in Him]

You said…. “ All Bibles proclaim the same, Triune, God;”

But you offered no Scripture to back up this claim.

Read post#735.
The 3 specific Scripture I gave there were in the OT where God says, "let US create" and "who will go for US?", Genesis 1:21; Isaiah 6:8.
I also said that there are verses which show that the Spirt and the Son were with God at creation, and are therefore eternal, (Genesis 1:2, John 1:1,) and that there is only ONE God, (Isaiah 43:10-11.)
Apart from this, Jesus used the name of God - I AM - and the Jews tried to stone him for blasphemy as they knew he was claiming to be God.

There does not need to be ONE verse that teaches the trinity; it's found in many places in Scripture. Again, I fully believe in the Trinity and I do not read the KJV.

 

[Shrewd Manager]

Or perhaps an aurochs. They have been extinct since 1627 - the animal is often referred to the literature of what is now Iraq, occupied much of the OT terrain, and was a particularly ferocious and formidable breed of wild bull. More info here: Aurochs - Wikipedia

Not sure I accept there's sufficient evidence for the existence of this alleged extinct critter. In short, it's just 'a load of bull' to support the failed theory of biological evolution. Plus it had two horns, not one, so doesn't even fit the basic description of a UNIcorn. Sorry sir, no sale.

 

[Oseas]

What you are saying is not exactly clear to me. I believe the Trinity to be eternal (existing from eternity’s past), and uncreated. I hope that is what you are saying, too.

What I know GOD is from Eternity to Eternity or from everlasting to everlasting time. He is the origin of all, but all. He has not beginning, nor ending, JESUS is the beginning and the ending.
JESUS is the beginning and the ending. As He said in the year around 95AD: Revelation 1:v.8- I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.
GOD the Father-the Word-the Word is GOD, and JESUS, they both are the FIRST two Persons. The third person, the person of the Holy Spirit, comes after, I mean, GOD would send him after of JESUS, in flesh and bones, as He sent JESUS, of course.

What did JESUS say about the person of the Holy Spirit? John 16:v.7-15: Remember: The testimony of JESUS is the Spirit of prophecy :

7 Nevertheless I tell you the Truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I WILL SEND him unto you.

8 And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of Judgment:

9 Of sin, because they believe not on me;

10 Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me no more;

11 Of judgment, because the PRINCE of this world is Judged.

12 I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now.

13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of Truth, is come, he will guide you into all Truth: for he shall not speak of himself; (he has no light of his own)
but whatsoever he shall hear (from the Greater Light), that shall he speak:
and he will shew you things to come.

14 He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you.

15 All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall TAAKE OF MINE, and shall shew it unto you.

JESUS prophesied about the birth of the person of Holy Spirit, as He promised and is written in John 16 above transcribed. Revelation 12:v.1-2and5 whose verses I comment below:

- FIRST, the Person of he Holy Spirit has not genealogy as JESUS has; why? Because he is not a Jew.

- As I above said-post #918, JESUS, or the NAME of JESUS, is known of men, and is also known of the angels, and He is known of the demons too. But the person of the Holy Spirit has a NAME written (in the Holy Scriptures, course) that no MAN knows, but he himself. I repit: He has not genealogy as JESUS has, he is not a Jew.

- JESUS came from heaven and He was born in Israel. John 6:38 - I came down from heaven(Behold the man!John 19:5)not to do mine own will, but the will of Him that sent me.
In the other hand, the prophetic birth of the person of Holy Spirit is not in Israel, but in a Gentile nation. His birth is within the body of Christ-the Church-and as JESUS said, he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak, for he shall receive of mine, he shall take of mine. This exposed picture or figure is like the Sun and Moon. The Moon receives light from the Sun and reflets the light over the Earth; Regardings the light of JESUS reflected by the Holy Spirit over the Earth, I can see by analogy in Genesis 1:v.16:-And GOD made two great lights; the Greater Light to rule the day, and the Lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also.

Revelation 12:1-2 & 5.
1 And there appeared a great wonder in heaven; a woman(the Church of the Lord JESUS) clothed with the Sun (JESUS and His Light, the Greater Light), and the moon (the Lesser light - the person of the Holy Spirit) under her feet, and upon her head a crown of twelve stars: (The twelve Apostles of the Lord JESUS)

2 And she being with child cried, travailing in birth, and pained to be delivered. 5-And she brought forth a man child - the person of the Holy Spirit- , who was to rule all nations (EXCEPT ISRAEL) with a rod of iron: and her child was CAUGHT UP unto GOD, and to His throne. By the way, about GOD's Throne-Psalm 97:v.1-2CJB say: 1 Adonai is king, let the earth rejoice, let the many coasts and islands be glad. 2 CLOUDS and thick darkness surround Him; Righteousness and Justice are the foundation of His throne. (By the way, as is written in 1 Thessalonians 4:v.17, "We which are alive and remain shall be CAUGHT UP (AS HER SON-REV. 12:v.5) together with them in the CLOUDS-see Psalm 97:v.2, to meet the Lord in the AIR (AIR is heaven - here the third heaven): and so shall we ever be with the Lord.-(in the third heaven)

That said, what was asked by Mr. Porson and answered by Beza has sense, as I transcribe below:
>>> Again, Mr. Porson asks, “ Why is the epithet [holy,] ” after being twice omitted, added [to Spirit] in the seventh verse ? Beza
says,
“ In order to distinguish one Spirit from the other, ut ab eo distinguatur cujus fit mentio in sequenti versu." <<<

I highlight also the explanation below mainly where the commenter tries to understand and asks "why, in the original, the expression of unity in the two verses differs, one from the other, both doctrinally and grammatically?" Perhaps, too, because when the Three Divine Persons are connumerated in the same passage, as in Matth. xxviii. 19, 2 Cor. xiii. 14, the epithet was usually added. It may also be asked, why, in the original, the expression of unity in the two verses differs, one from the other, both doctrinally and grammatically? But his conclusion is much much more interesting and impressive when he says: The reason appears to be, because in one the unity is essential and real; in the other, adventitious and APPARENT ONLY (highlight mine); and because the eighth verse is dependent on the seventh, as a RELATIVE is on its antecedent.

the spirit, and the water, and the blood - small "s" - earthly witnesses.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

That's not actually the charge at all, it is that the usage of the term "Easter" is anachronistic since the festival that is being referred to is the Jewish passover not a celebration of the resurrection. The referent in the passage, through an examination of the context, is very clearly the Jewish festival both because it was Peter's captors who were concerned with celebrating it, and they would not have been celebrating the resurrection. So to use the word that refers to the celebration of the resurrection doesn't make sense of the context of the passage. Simply because there was some interchangeability between pascha and easter is, in fact, largely irrelevant to the question at hand and discussing it does little but obfuscate the core issues.

I provided dictionaries and an Encyclopedia to prove you are wrong. This also lines up with Scripture, as well. You are simply seeing what you want to see at this point.

 

[robycop3]

Let’s see about that.



Is the KJV wrong for rendering "Pascha" as the English word "Easter" in Acts of the Apostles 12:4?

YES.

No. Although "Pascha" was originally a Hebrew word ("פּסח (pesach)"), Greek, being the language of a predominantly Christian nation, had appropriated the Jewish word and gave it the Christian meaning of "Easter". That is why in modern Greek, the primary meaning of "Πάσχα" is Easter and Passover is actually the secondary meaning when "Πάσχα" is qualified as the "εβραϊκό Πάσχα (Hebrew Pascha)" or the "Πάσχα των ιουδαίων (Pascha of the Jews)". Many other languages of Christendom are like modern Greek in making Easter the primary meaning of the transliteration of "Pascha":

See the entire article here:
“Easter” or “Passover” in Acts 12:4? - King James Version Today

Side Note:

You can Google the different words (English to French, etc.) here to check it for yourself. Oh, and the word “easter” is based on the word “east” (Which is the direction of the rising of the sun; For the dawn is associated with the discovery of Christ being risen in the Bible). Read the full article in the link provided above to learn more. They go into great depth on this topic.

With all due respect...
Acts 12:4 was written by LUKE in the 1st century. At that time, EASTER DID NOT EXIST, and if it had existed then, neither Herod nor the Jewish religious leadership he was trying to please would've left off dealing with Peter to have observed it. They wouldn't've observed it at all!

And V.3 makes it plain that PASSOVER was then ongoing. And Ezekiel 45:21 makes it plain that passover is SEVEN DAYS LONG, & not just the paschal lamb meal day.
Thus, Easter is WRONG in v4!

I'll be the first to acknowledge that pascha means both Easter & passover in MODERN Greek, but again, what matters here is what pascha meant to LUKE. The translation is supposed to reflect LUKE'S written thoughts, not those of the translators, who did observe Easter.
(Cont. next post)

 

[Bible Highlighter]

What I know GOD is from Eternity to Eternity or from everlasting to everlasting time. He is the origin of all, but all. He has not beginning, nor ending, JESUS is the beginning and the ending.
JESUS is the beginning and the ending. As He said in the year around 95AD: Revelation 1:v.8- I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.
GOD the Father-the Word-the Word is GOD, and JESUS, they both are the FIRST two Persons. The third person, the person of the Holy Spirit, comes after, I mean, GOD would send him after of JESUS, in flesh and bones, as He sent JESUS, of course.

What did JESUS say about the person of the Holy Spirit? John 16:v.7-15: Remember: The testimony of JESUS is the Spirit of prophecy :

7 Nevertheless I tell you the Truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I WILL SEND him unto you.

8 And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of Judgment:

9 Of sin, because they believe not on me;

10 Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me no more;

11 Of judgment, because the PRINCE of this world is Judged.

12 I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now.

13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of Truth, is come, he will guide you into all Truth: for he shall not speak of himself; (he has no light of his own)
but whatsoever he shall hear (from the Greater Light), that shall he speak:
and he will shew you things to come.

14 He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you.

15 All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall TAAKE OF MINE, and shall shew it unto you.

JESUS prophesied about the birth of the person of Holy Spirit, as He promised and is written in John 16 above transcribed. Revelation 12:v.1-2and5 whose verses I comment below:

- FIRST, the Person of he Holy Spirit has not genealogy as JESUS has; why? Because he is not a Jew.

- As I above said-post #918, JESUS, or the NAME of JESUS, is known of men, and is also known of the angels, and He is known of the demons too. But the person of the Holy Spirit has a NAME written (in the Holy Scriptures, course) that no MAN knows, but he himself. I repit: He has not genealogy as JESUS has, he is not a Jew.

- JESUS came from heaven and He was born in Israel. John 6:38 - I came down from heaven(Behold the man!John 19:5)not to do mine own will, but the will of Him that sent me.
In the other hand, the prophetic birth of the person of Holy Spirit is not in Israel, but in a Gentile nation. His birth is within the body of Christ-the Church-and as JESUS said, he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak, for he shall receive of mine, he shall take of mine. This exposed picture or figure is like the Sun and Moon. The Moon receives light from the Sun and reflets the light over the Earth; Regardings the light of JESUS reflected by the Holy Spirit over the Earth, I can see by analogy in Genesis 1:v.16:-And GOD made two great lights; the Greater Light to rule the day, and the Lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also.

Revelation 12:1-2 & 5.
1 And there appeared a great wonder in heaven; a woman(the Church of the Lord JESUS) clothed with the Sun (JESUS and His Light, the Greater Light), and the moon (the Lesser light - the person of the Holy Spirit) under her feet, and upon her head a crown of twelve stars: (The twelve Apostles of the Lord JESUS)

2 And she being with child cried, travailing in birth, and pained to be delivered. 5-And she brought forth a man child - the person of the Holy Spirit- , who was to rule all nations (EXCEPT ISRAEL) with a rod of iron: and her child was CAUGHT UP unto GOD, and to His throne. By the way, about GOD's Throne-Psalm 97:v.1-2CJB say: 1 Adonai is king, let the earth rejoice, let the many coasts and islands be glad. 2 CLOUDS and thick darkness surround Him; Righteousness and Justice are the foundation of His throne. (By the way, as is written in 1 Thessalonians 4:v.17, "We which are alive and remain shall be CAUGHT UP (AS HER SON-REV. 12:v.5) together with them in the CLOUDS-see Psalm 97:v.2, to meet the Lord in the AIR (AIR is heaven - here the third heaven): and so shall we ever be with the Lord.-(in the third heaven)

That said, what was asked by Mr. Porson and answered by Beza has sense, as I transcribe below:
>>> Again, Mr. Porson asks, “ Why is the epithet [holy,] ” after being twice omitted, added [to Spirit] in the seventh verse ? Beza
says,
“ In order to distinguish one Spirit from the other, ut ab eo distinguatur cujus fit mentio in sequenti versu." <<<

I highlight also the explanation below mainly where the commenter tries to understand and asks "why, in the original, the expression of unity in the two verses differs, one from the other, both doctrinally and grammatically?" Perhaps, too, because when the Three Divine Persons are connumerated in the same passage, as in Matth. xxviii. 19, 2 Cor. xiii. 14, the epithet was usually added. It may also be asked, why, in the original, the expression of unity in the two verses differs, one from the other, both doctrinally and grammatically? But his conclusion is much much more interesting and impressive when he says: The reason appears to be, because in one the unity is essential and real; in the other, adventitious and APPARENT ONLY (highlight mine); and because the eighth verse is dependent on the seventh, as a RELATIVE is on its antecedent.

the spirit, and the water, and the blood - small "s" - earthly witnesses.

The Living Word (Jesus) is without beginning of days.

In context, Hebrews 7:3 refers to Jesus and not the Holy Spirit.

“Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the Son of God; abideth a priest continually.”

The Living Word (Jesus) is from everlasting.

“But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.” (Micah 5:2).

The Trinity exists from Eternity’s past. The Living Word is God (John 1:1-4), and never had a beginning. If you disagree, this is not the thread for this kind of discussion. In fact, if you deny the Trinity being eternal, you are not allowed to even post in the Christian section of the forums. You can only post in the non-Christian section of the forums (if you deny the Trinity being eternal).

 

[robycop3]

(Cont. from previous post)

In regards to 1 Timothy 6:10:

Well, in Ezekiel 28:2 we see a reference to "the PRINCE of Tyrus", whom many have seen as a type of the Antichrist, and in 28: 12 we see a reference to "the KING of Tyrus", the power behind the prince, whom they see as a description of Satan himself and his fall. The description of "the KING of Tyrus" is from verse 12 to 17. Here we read:

Ezekiel 28:12-18 King James Bible

12 Son of man, take up a lamentation upon the KING of Tyrus, and say unto him, Thus saith the Lord God; Thou sealest up the sum, full of wisdom, and perfect in beauty.

13 Thou hast been IN EDEN THE GARDEN OF GOD; EVERY PRECIOUS STONE WAS THY COVERING, THE SARDIUS, TOPAZ, AND THE DIAMOND, THE BERYL, THE ONYX, AND THE JASPER, THE SAPPHIRE, THE EMERALD, AND THE CARBUNCLE, AND GOLD: the workmanship of thy tabrets and of thy pipes was prepared in thee in the day that thou wast created.

14 THOU ART THE ANOINTED CHERUB that covereth; and I have set thee so: thou wast upon the holy mountain of God; thou hast walked up and down in the midst of the stones of fire.

15 Thou wast perfect in thy ways from the day that thou wast created, till iniquity was found in thee.

16 BY THE MULTITUDE OF THY MERCHANDISE they have filled the midst of thee with violence, and thou hast sinned: therefore I will cast thee as profane out of the mountain of God: and I will destroy thee, O covering cherub, from the midst of the stones of fire.

17 THINE HEART WAS LIFTED UP BECAUSE OF THY BEAUTY, thou hast corrupted thy wisdom by reason of thy brightness: I will cast thee to the ground, I will lay thee before kings, that they may behold thee.​

18 Thou hast defiled thy sanctuaries by the multitude of thine iniquities, BY THE INIQUITY OF THY TRAFFICK; therefore will I bring forth a fire from the midst of thee, it shall devour thee, and I will bring thee to ashes upon the earth in the sight of all them that behold thee."​

Keep in mind that the cause of the fall of Lucifer (Satan) was pride. His heart was lifted up because of his beauty, which was composed of numerous precious stones, diamonds and gold. "lest being LIFTED UP WITH PRIDE he fall into the condemnation of the devil." 1 Timothy 3:6

Some think that when God told Moses to make the ark of the covenant for the Holy of holies, the reason there were to be TWO CHERUBS facing each other, was so that "the covering cherubs" would see that there was another one just like them, and so they were not unique or the most beautiful of all the creatures God had made.

This was to be a spiritual lesson to reveal the reason behind the fall of Satan, or Lucifer. He was lifted up because of his beauty, which was all these precious stones and gold. It was the love of wealth that made up his own physical beauty that made him want more, and to ultimately be the wealthiest of them all, God Himself.

Likewise we see the same characteristics in the "Antichrist" or "the PRINCE of Tyrus." He is described in Ezekiel 28:2-8

Ezekiel 28:2-8 King James Bible

2 Son of man, say unto the prince of Tyrus, Thus saith the Lord God; Because thine heart is lifted up, and thou hast said, I am a God, I sit in the seat of God, in the midst of the seas; yet thou art a man, and not God, though thou set thine heart as the heart of God:

3 Behold, thou art wiser than Daniel; there is no secret that they can hide from thee:

4 With thy wisdom and with thine understanding THOU HAST GOTTEN THEE RICHES, AND HAST GOTTEN GOLD AND SILVER INTO THY TREASURES:

5 By thy great wisdom and BY THY TRAFFICK HAST THOU INCREASED THY RICHES, AND THINE HEART IS LIFTED UP BECAUSE OF THY RICHES:

6 Therefore thus saith the Lord God; Because thou hast set thine heart as the heart of God;

7 Behold, therefore I will bring strangers upon thee, the terrible of the nations: and they shall draw their swords against the beauty of thy wisdom, and they shall defile thy brightness.

8 They shall bring thee down to the pit, and thou shalt die the deaths of them that are slain in the midst of the seas.​

In other words, it actually WAS "the love of money" or wealth, that was the root of all evil that has happened since the fall of Lucifer.

Source used:
Another King James Bible Believer

Well, ACTUALLY, Satan wanted & still wants to replace God as Supreme Being. He wants POWER, not money. remember, he said, "I will be like the Most High."

Hitler, the most-evil man in history so far, never had much money. But he had POWER, which was his real aim.

And again, people such as the suicide bombers & school shooters did NOT commit their great evils for lova money. And the modern versions' translation of Paul's Greek in 1 Tim. 6:10 is MORE-CORRECT than the KJV's reading, simple as THAT.

(Cont. next post)

 

[Bible Highlighter]

Read post#735.
The 3 specific Scripture I gave there were in the OT where God says, "let US create" and "who will go for US?", Genesis 1:21; Isaiah 6:8.
I also said that there are verses which show that the Spirt and the Son were with God at creation, and are therefore eternal, (Genesis 1:2, John 1:1,) and that there is only ONE God, (Isaiah 43:10-11.)
Apart from this, Jesus used the name of God - I AM - and the Jews tried to stone him for blasphemy as they knew he was claiming to be God.

Yes, I believe in the eternal Trinity, and I defended against Arianism (or Anti-Trinitarianism) many times. So I am 100% aware of Genesis and other verses in the OT about how God refers to Himself in the plural form. I am aware of Scripture that says God is one. But there are believers out there who believe some wrong things about the nature of God. Some believe Jesus was formed as a demi-god shortly before the creation, and they think the Spirit is another name for the Father or they think the Spirit is merely an impersonal force. In either case, they can refer to the “us” as referring to Jesus and the Father and yet not include the Spirit in being a distinct person in those OT verses referring to God in the plural form.

There does not need to be ONE verse that teaches the trinity; it's found in many places in Scripture. Again, I fully believe in the Trinity and I do not read the KJV.

Many Christians learn of the Trinity not from their own knowledge and study of the Bible, but by a church. Yes, it is possible that some Christians believe the Trinity by partially believing 1 John 5:7 in the KJB. Yes, it’s true. The Trinity can be indirectly implied by piecing together many verses in Scripture, but it is not directly taught like in 1 John 5:7. Please take no offense, but that is what you don’t seem to understand. For no other verse in Scripture says the same thing or similar like 1 John 5:7 in the King James Bible (Which is removed in Modern Translations). For you cannot stand up against a JW with authority and tell him point blank in your Bible about the Trinity. There is no verse except 1 John 5:7 in the KJB.

 

[robycop3]

(Cont. from last post)

Source:
Definition of kill | Dictionary.com

Notice the last definition in the screen capture above for the word “kill.”
It says, “to commit murder.”

So there is no problem (unless you want there to be one).

I didn't create the prob; pacifists & anti-capital-punishment wackos did. They use that KJV rendering of Ex. 20:13 as an excuse to oppose ANY killing of another person, or in some cases, animals.

"Kill" neans to end the life of anything.
"Murder" means to wrongfully end the life of another person. Simple as THAT!
The KJV rendering, while not entirely wrong, is inferior to "You shall not MURDER", which is the intent of that verse.

 

[Oseas]

1. Why would God's words need to be purified at all? He is pure, holy and perfect. Are you saying that 6 times God spoke impure words?
2. The Lord's words are AS, or like, silver that has been purified 7 times - the silver had been purified so often that it was perfect. In the Bible, 7 is a number of completion and perfection. The Psalmist is saying that the Lord's words are perfect.
He certainly does not say that a man made translation of the Bible needs to be purified 7 times and then IT will be perfect; that's called reading into the text.

Looks like the myth collector managed to confuse readers with this topic of his. Since then began the Judgment against the Word by the letter of the Word, the question is that the letter kills, the letter works exactly in the way that the Old Serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, likes. By the way, now, in the time of Apocalypse, Satan has a new name, he is called red Dragon, which deceiveth the whole world: but he will be cast out from this heavenly place in Christ into the earth, and his angels with him.

Be careful

 

[robycop3]

You do realize that some words do not translate from one language to another, right? Also, are you looking at the right Greek manuscripts? My guess is you are looking at the Critical Text.

I'm looking at mss. from all available sources. The ones used to make the KJV have "pascha" in Acts 12:4, same as the CT ones do. Same with 1 Tim. 6:10, and Rev. 16:5, in which "and shalt be" is NOT found in ANY known ms.

 

[robycop3]

So the answer is… no. There is no perfect Bible that you can hold in your hands today.
Therein lies the difference between us.
You have a bunch of fallible imperfect bibles that you have to sift through to figure out what is true or not true within them. That’s a full time job. I think God would want us to be busy at doing what He says vs. trying to endlessly figure out what He actually said because we don’t have a perfect Bible (according to your worldview).

Do YOU have a perfect Bible? If so, pleast tell us its name. (It's not the KJV, as we've proven here that it's NOT perfect.)

 

[Bible Highlighter]

YES.


With all due respect...
Acts 12:4 was written by LUKE in the 1st century. At that time, EASTER DID NOT EXIST, and if it had existed then, neither Herod nor the Jewish religious leadership he was trying to please would've left off dealing with Peter to have observed it. They wouldn't've observed it at all!

And V.3 makes it plain that PASSOVER was then ongoing. And Ezekiel 45:21 makes it plain that passover is SEVEN DAYS LONG, & not just the paschal lamb meal day.
Thus, Easter is WRONG in v4!

I'll be the first to acknowledge that pascha means both Easter & passover in MODERN Greek, but again, what matters here is what pascha meant to LUKE. The translation is supposed to reflect LUKE'S written thoughts, not those of the translators, who did observe Easter.
(Cont. next post)

Actually, you would be arguing against dictionaries, and an Encyclopedia.

See post #953, post #954, post #955.

Also, I would encourage you to read in their entirety the following two articles with an open mind. If not, you are simply seeing what you want to see because you have a serious “hate on” for the KJB for some odd reason.

“Easter” or “Passover” in Acts 12:4?

Another King James Bible Believer

If after you carefully considered the information given in these two articles with an open mind, and you are still shaking your head… “no.” I don’t know what else to tell you to convince you. You are simply not agreeing for your own personal reasons. In that case, we can politely agree to disagree in love in respect in Christ. You go back to your imperfect “choose your own adventure bibles” (as your ever slightly changing authority), and I go back to my pure Word (the KJB as my FINAL word of authority). We will both have to give an account of the truth to the Lord our God in how we served Him in this life and in everything we thought, said, and did. We cannot hide from the Lord anything. I am following what I believe is the truth and I am 100% convinced in regards to my position on the KJB (Which is a unique position in that the KJB is either the pure Word (without error), or the KJB may be very close to being perfect like upper 90% or something). But I would not know if the KJB is not pure without facing God one day. I have to choose one Word of God that is pure that I can hold in my hands today and take by faith. If not, then I am the seat of God and determine what are God’s words, and what are not God’s words. I don’t have that kind of authority. It’s either all true, or all false. I choose to trust God by faith in His Word. I would rather trust in His Word more than trust less. But you can doubt His Word in parts if you like and say there are errors in His Word. I just don’t think that is beneficial to uplifting and building the faith in loving God and others with a self sacrificial love that Christ calls us to answer.

 

[robycop3]

You deny what the verse plainly says. The Lord’s word are pure words… as silver tried in a furnace… purified seven times. What was purified seven times? The words of the Lord which are pure words. You don’t believe there is a pure Bible and thus the book of God you have is almost pure. You don’t believe it’s pure. But the Bible says that the words of the Lord are pure words… purified seven times.

MMRRPP ! WRONG !

Even your KJV says "AS silver..."! As I explained, silver purified 7 times was the standard for silver used to make the Tabernacle/temple instruments. This was the purest physical thing known to David & he was comparing God's words to it.

How was that silver purified? It was "tried", that is, melted down. When it was thoroughly molten & all the combustible or evaporative impurities such as dirt or tin were destroyed, the non-combustible materials rose to the top, as silver is a pretty heavy metal. These formed a slag which was skimmed off using a wooden instrument, to which molten silver won't cling. After a little while, the surface was skimmed again. When this was repeated 7 times, the silver was over 99% pure, even by modern standards. Far as the Israelis were concerned, it was 100% pure, and that was what David was comparing God's words with.

Now, GODS WORDS WERE NOT REFINED ! ! ! They were pure the instant He spoke them! What is IMpure are man's translations of them, as all men are imperfect.

And again...Psalm 12 does NOT mention ANY Bible version or translation whatsoever!

Yes, God's words are pure; man's translations are not.

 

[robycop3]

Your reasoning is silly, then.


Again, oranges and apples.

Nupe! men can't prove them corrupt, any more than he can now state with certainty what's in the core of Jupiter.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

Do YOU have a perfect Bible? If so, pleast tell us its name. (It's not the KJV, as we've proven here that it's NOT perfect.)

It’s the KJB. The King James Bible. I just didn’t wake up one day and seen a light shining on the KJB that made my decision, and neither did I throw a dart with a blind fold amongst of see of different translations. There are many evidences that point to the KJB as the pure Word of God today. Could I be wrong? Sure, but then where does that leave my faith in God’s Word? It would lead me down an endless quest in trying to piece together a perfect Word in trying to understand what He said (When He might not have said that), when in reality I should be busy in living for Him by loving God, and loving others. See, what you don’t understand is that all Modern Translations can traced back to Rome in several ways. If you are a Catholic, then I can see this as not being an issue for you. But I don’t agree with Catholicism, and thus I have to be careful of the Modern Translations because of their many ties to Rome. Do I use Modern Translations? Yes. I use them to help update the 1600’s English in the KJB. But they are not my final word of authority because they place the devil’s name in them where they do not belong, and they change doctrine, and commands, etc.; But of course, you are most likely not willing to see this because of your hatred for the King James Bible for some odd reason.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

MMRRPP ! WRONG !

Even your KJV says "AS silver..."! As I explained, silver purified 7 times was the standard for silver used to make the Tabernacle/temple instruments. This was the purest physical thing known to David & he was comparing God's words to it.

How was that silver purified? It was "tried", that is, melted down. When it was thoroughly molten & all the combustible or evaporative impurities such as dirt or tin were destroyed, the non-combustible materials rose to the top, as silver is a pretty heavy metal. These formed a slag which was skimmed off using a wooden instrument, to which molten silver won't cling. After a little while, the surface was skimmed again. When this was repeated 7 times, the silver was over 99% pure, even by modern standards. Far as the Israelis were concerned, it was 100% pure, and that was what David was comparing God's words with.

Now, GODS WORDS WERE NOT REFINED ! ! ! They were pure the instant He spoke them! What is IMpure are man's translations of them, as all men are imperfect.

And again...Psalm 12 does NOT mention ANY Bible version or translation whatsoever!

Yes, God's words are pure; man's translations are not.

Nowhere did I say that when God DIRECTLY SPEAKS or DIRECTLY INSPIRES SCRIPTURE that it needs to be purified seven times. That is something you assumed I said (Which I never stated). Psalms 12:6 is saying that the Word is being purified like silver. That is what the word “as” is saying. The word as is like the word “like.”

In the NKJV it says,

“The words of the LORD are pure words, Like silver tried in a furnace of earth, Purified seven times.” (Psalms 12:6) (NKJV).

It’s obviously comparing the Word (Which is pure) with another thing that is pure to give us an idea (like silver purified seven times). Problem is that you don’t believe the Word is pure. You have books of the Lord that is close to pure, but it is not pure. So the cover of some of your bibles is not telling the truth. They cannot say “Holy Bible” because holy implies something that is perfect and pure. Something with errors in it is not pure.

Anyways, my point is that not all of Scripture has one meaning alone. There are multiple meanings (beyond the main meaning or point) that we can gain from God’s Word. If this is the case, then it is possible that the facts of history on the KJB having seven editions counting up to the Cambridge Edition (circa. 1900) is simply a fact. Whether you believe the Cambridge Edition KJB to be perfect or not is on you. I believe it because that is my only choice in regards to the faith. For the faith you offer with chasing down a Word of God to maybe have a perfect or pure Word one day is not something that seems like it is of God. I believe God wants me to spend my life in loving Him and others with standing upon His Word with absolute confidence with no wavering in my faith in what He said.

The Modern Translations are in a constant state of flux and change. It’s a faith that so utterly changes as a result because faith comes by hearing the Word of God (Romans 10:17).

 

[Fervent]

I provided dictionaries and an Encyclopedia to prove you are wrong. This also lines up with Scripture, as well. You are simply seeing what you want to see at this point.

Your provision of dictionaries and an encyclopedia don't speak to what I have been arguing, since it is about which the context tells us is being celebrated not the appropriateness of "pascha" being translated as easter in general. The context is clearly referring to Jews celebrating a Jewish festival, not the resurrection.