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your gonna have to show me all that in the catechism concerning the Immaculate Conception. I really don't think it's that long a statement. I do understand you might buch a lot of stuff together from the CCC and come up with that theory but you'd need to want to. I don't equate excommunication with sent to the lake of fire. Pretty sure even the Catholic Church doesn't suppose quite that much authority. They may warn of it but that's a bit less than stating it outright and zapping one into hellfire.
Excommunication, you're right, is not sending someone to hell. It's more like chemotherapy-you gotta be rough with it, and there might be collateral damage, but the intent is to get your head turned around straight.
Regarding the Immaculate Conception, there's a lot of levels of belief. You can accept it as truth, and not think too much of it (like how I posted-God wanted a perfect mother for his son, and so he made it happen). You can dig deeper, and get some nuances, deeper still and get more, and you can get down into the nitty gritty, and start on the peripheral stuff that's not required. But Protestants don't usually get that, and so they dig into the periphery, and ignore the central issue.
Oh I get the dogma part. But as I don't have to believe it, it doesn't concern me. That is unless I want to become Catholic. And even then there's so much wiggle room in that dogma that it doesn't really require a load of study to believe. It's that Dogma word that causes us to even dig in the first place.Not a problem. As neither you nor I are Catholics we can be sure that our Catholic friends will correct our errors. For that we can be thankful.
Here is the section from the Catechism of the Catholic Church -
491 Through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, "full of grace" through God, was redeemed from the moment of her conception. That is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception confesses, as Pope Pius IX proclaimed in 1854:
The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin.
Now, you need to pay attention to that little word, dogma, because it is really significant. Here is a link concerning Mariology - Roman Catholic Mariology - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia In it you will see that the Immaculate Conception is a de fide dogma, which is the very highest level of dogma in the Catholic Church. It is on the same level as the Resurrection and the Trinity.
Here is a link to a discussion about Catholic dogma - Roman Catholic dogma - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
I hope these help.
There may, indeed, be varying levels of understanding of any doctrine, but i think you will agree that regardless of to what degree one understands the dogma of the Immaculate Conception one must believe it in order to be saved. It is, after all, a de fide dogma. The Church may excommunicate you for not believing it, but its teaching is clear that not believing it is a mortal sin which will send you to hell.
The Biblical argument rests entirely upon the angel who said to Mary at the Annunciation, "You have found favor with God" which is translated in the older Bible versions as "full of grace." If she was filled up with God's grace, so the argument goes, there's no room for any sin of any kind.But is Immaculate Conception biblical? I always thought that anyone born from day 1 had original sin and that included Mary.
I don't agree with that. In theory, he could have suspended the transmission of Original Sin in this one case--a miraculous development--without those other implications you mentioned.If Mary didn't have original sin than she would have been an angel brought from heaven or created by God himself which I don't think is scripture itself but than again what do I know I'm still learning.
The Biblical argument rests entirely upon the angel who said to Mary at the Annunciation, "You have found favor with God" which is translated in the older Bible versions as "full of grace." If she was filled up with God's grace, so the argument goes, there's no room for any sin of any kind.
I don't agree with that. In theory, he could have suspended the transmission of Original Sin in this one case--a miraculous development--without those other implications you mentioned.
But still there is no Biblical reason IMO for concluding that she was conceived without sin. It's a rationalization.
But is Immaculate Conception biblical? I always thought that anyone born from day 1 had original sin and that included Mary.
If Mary didn't have original sin than she would have been an angel brought from heaven or created by God himself which I don't think is scripture itself but than again what do I know I'm still learning.
Translated correctly as "full of grace", we believe...The Biblical argument rests entirely upon the angel who said to Mary at the Annunciation, "You have found favor with God" which is translated in the older Bible versions as "full of grace."
At least you're learning to state our beliefs correctly! I give you kudos for that.If she was filled up with God's grace, so the argument goes, there's no room for any sin of any kind.
I don't agree with that. In theory, he could have suspended the transmission of Original Sin in this one case--a miraculous development--without those other implications you mentioned.
But still there is no Biblical reason IMO for concluding that she was conceived without sin. It's a rationalization.
The only biblical scripture that seems to fit with Catholic belief system would be Psalm 132 from what I can find.
But is Immaculate Conception biblical? I always thought that anyone born from day 1 had original sin and that included Mary.
If Mary didn't have original sin than she would have been an angel brought from heaven or created by God himself which I don't think is scripture itself but than again what do I know I'm still learning.
You don't think God could create a sinless human?
Is original sin Biblical?
Yes thats the same one. It speaks of the ark etc but literally it was fulfilled with Solomon. Acts 7:26 as habitation of God can be crossreferenced with 132:5 , but vs 13-14 places it at the overcomers .... :shrug:
edit: sorry 7:46
Yes he can.
Maybe the eunich had it to give to the queen of Sheba where they claim to still have itBut you know that the ark was lost, never to be seen again? The Ark is specifically mentioned, though, in Rev 11, and at the end of Chapter 11, into chapter 12, we see "a woman, clothed with the sun..."
We believe that Mary is the manifestation of the Ark. She contained the Word of God, the Bread of Life, and the High Priest.
Yes thats the same one. It speaks of the ark etc but literally it was fulfilled with Solomon. Acts 7:26 as habitation of God can be crossreferenced with 132:5 , but vs 13-14 places it at the overcomers .... :shrug:
edit: sorry 7:46
That seems to be the same answer to anything that I post...nvrmndBut you know that the ark was lost, never to be seen again? The Ark is specifically mentioned, though, in Rev 11, and at the end of Chapter 11, into chapter 12, we see "a woman, clothed with the sun..."
We believe that Mary is the manifestation of the Ark. She contained the Word of God, the Bread of Life, and the High Priest.
The Biblical argument rests entirely upon the angel who said to Mary at the Annunciation, "You have found favor with God" which is translated in the older Bible versions as "full of grace." If she was filled up with God's grace, so the argument goes, there's no room for any sin of any kind.
I don't agree with that. In theory, he could have suspended the transmission of Original Sin in this one case--a miraculous development--without those other implications you mentioned.
But still there is no Biblical reason IMO for concluding that she was conceived without sin. It's a rationalization.
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