lucaspa
Legend
Okay, no eyewitness, thank you. It means that the whole thing about the resurrection of Jesus is relegated into a matter of faith. Therefore, there is no such a thing as eyewitnesses to the risen Christ.
Two different things here. There were eyewitnesses to the risen Christ. That's how the resurrection was deduced. A dead Jesus, then a living, physical, walking, talking Jesus. That's exactly what you said. Therefore, you statement "To appear after one's suffering (on the cross) is not proof even that he died;" What you are trying to do is call into question whether Jesus was actually dead.
There is overwhelming evidence that this was the case. When the guards came around to break the legs of the prisoners -- so they would be dead in time to be buried before the sabbath -- they did not break the legs of Jesus. He was already dead.
However, if you want to argue that Jesus was only unconscious, there you have the problem of how people die from crucifixion. They die of suffocation. As a person hangs by the arms, this places extreme strain o the muscles of the chest. They spasm and the victim stops breathing. The reason crucifixion was so painful is that, to relieve the chest muscles, a person had to stand on the nailed feet. If the Romans wanted a victim to last longer, they put a small board behind their buttocks so the victim could partially rest their weight there.
So, breaking the legs means the victim can no longer put weight on his feet, thus triggering the muscle spasms and suffocation. If Jesus were unconscious, it also means that he couldn't put weight on the feet. Therefore, for crucifixion, unconsciousness is death.
If Jesus had temporarily stopped breathing, then he would have had to start breathing between the time they took him down, got him to the tomb, and wrapped him. If he were not breathing during all that time, then he was dead. If instead he gasped during that process (as he would have had to restart his breathing), then it would have been noticed and he never would have been put in the tomb.
So, Jesus was dead.
Second, no one is disputing that faith in the resurrection is faith. Faith does not mean "no evidence" or "contrary to evidence". Faith means "evidence that is not available to everyone under approximately the same circumstances". We have no evidence of the resurrection that has survived until the present. We believe the major points of the accounts. That does not mean that every detail has to be true. See below for my discussion of Matthew's 3 days and 3 nights. In fact, I would expect details of the 4 accounts to differ. If they did not, then I would be very suspicious that someone made the story up and everyone agreed to it. Look at how police and investigators consider the stories of eyewitnesses today. If the stories are identical, that is a sign of fabrication.
I believe that the only one who could provide the missing body was Joseph of Arimathea. But he was much more smart than that. He knew that Pilate would not only get Jesus back on the cross but also Joseph himself for having cheated on him. So, Joseph had to leave Israel with Jesus and Mary Magdalene. Don't forget that after those 40 days nothing was ever heard about these three people again.
1. Joseph provided the tomb. But more than one person placed Jesus in the tomb. Are you saying that Joseph took the body?
2. Instead, you think Jesus, Joseph, and Mary pulled a scam. What's the motive for Joseph and Mary? You have Mary being that good an actress? Remember, she was one of those that went to the tomb on Sunday. She fooled everyone that she was surprised?
3. That's a huge leap that nothing was ever heard of Joseph or Mary Magdalene ever again. What we have is that the gospels and Acts does not mention them. But neither are exhaustive histories! Both were written for theological purposes, not as histories as we understand the term. Therefore the axiom "absence of evidence is not evidence of absence" applies here.
So, the major accusation is that the disciples stole the body. I recommend you to read my thread, "A Challenge to Our Intelligence" in this non-Christian area of the Forum.
That was the major accusation. Provide a link and I might look this up.
Actually, the third day would have started at sundown on Saturday. You seem to be nitpicking Matthew's choice of "3 days and 3 nights". Is that really critical? Do either Mark, Luke, or John insist on 3 nights? No. All the gospels were written for theological purposes. Matthew specifically was writing to Jews. Notice his birth narrative differs markedly from Luke's. Matthew constructs Jesus' birth and subsequent events to make Jesus into Moses for that generation. What happened to Moses tends to happen to Jesus. That is so his Jewish audience would have an easier time accepting Jesus as Messiah. I haven't researched the Jewish significance of "3 days and 3 nights" but I suspect there was one.
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