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By what you said so far: I have gotten the impression that you believe the words of Jesus are for a different people group and not for believers today. If this is so, then why does Jesus say this?
"He that... receiveth not my words, ...the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day." (John 12:48).
For you, these words are to be tossed aside if you believe Jesus's earthly ministry was something exclusively to a certain people group in the past alone.
Three years of the disciples training by Jesus would go down the drain.
Jesus's earthly ministry was for the Jews, the circumcised. After the nation rejected him, he raised Paul to reach out to us.
You are correct when you quoted Paul, his words are the words of the ascended Christ for us.
But when you read about what Peter and the other believe during the 4 Gospels and Acts, resist the temptation to anticipate revelation.
Don't read Paul 1 Cor 15:1-4, for example, into John 3:16, which almost every Christian who is not a dispensationalist does. Instead understand John 3:16 thru John himself in John 20:31
31 But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.
Again, the gospel of the kingdom shall be preached to all the world and then the end shall come. See Matthew 24:14. Also, Jesus said to His disciples, "And whosoever shall not receive you, nor hear your words, when ye depart out of that house or city, shake off the dust of your feet. Verily I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom and Gomorrha in the day of judgment, than for that city." (Matthew 10:14-15). In other words, the New Testament was written by Christ's followers; So we cannot reject what they say about Christ (like the 4 gospels) otherwise Jesus said judgment will be upon us.
Daniel 9 talks about the consummation or the End.
Of course not. But you can shine a light on it's likly meaning which is all I have done.You cannot eliminate the meaning of one scripture through the use of another.
He did give us a sign and that sign is the very verse you refer me to at the end of Revelation.The word used in 1:3 is ταχυ - quickly, and it is inappropriate to ignore its meaning because of another unrelated scripture. Had John and the Holy Spirit wanted to contradict the plain meaning of that word in that context, they would have provided a sign that the reader could interpret.
No this taking "related passages" to help interpret the meaning is using the word to make sure we see what the Lord means when He uses it elsewhere.This taking of unrelated passages and trying to change the meaning of another passage is using the word to fight against itself rather than to harmonize.
That word is used at the end of Revelation helps us see just what a "short time frame" might be to the Lord. In the case of His statement at the end of Revelation - that short time frame is at least 2000 years.That word is used at the end of Revelation also because the short time frame was considered important to convey. That is why people repeat things when they speak and write. It's how we stress important concepts.
Exactly so.That is why people repeat things when they speak and write. It's how we stress important concepts.
Once you realized this, Ephesians 2 and 3 take on totally new meaning, and you as a former Gentile, will really praise God the Father for his wonderful plan. And you will not be upset that Jesus was only speaking to the Jews in the 4 Gospels.
Unfortunately when posting a lot on this forum one can easily looses track of what post you are referring to especially after many pages have flown by.This part, I find, is interesting. How does this idea work? Do you see that, according to dispensational theology, heaven is to be brought to earth as in it is 'here' vs. 'out there' somewhere?
""Behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to render to every man according to what he has done." Revelation 22:12
Because we know as we read this that there has been some 2000 years since He made the statement that He comes quickly - we can know that when He says quickly He does not mean a short time as you are suggesting.
No, it doesn't. It is written in the context of the time frame in which God answers prayer and was written to a completely different group of people at a different time. It has nothing at all to do with the passages in Revelation.It's a matter of letting the scriptures interpret the scriptures. The 2nd Peter passage is only one scripture that helps us do that.
In this case, it's just a convenient exercise to obfuscate and ignore the meaning of the original context. It's terrible exegesis.No this taking "related passages" to help interpret the meaning is using the word to make sure we see what the Lord means when He uses it elsewhere.
That word is used at the end of Revelation helps us see just what a "short time frame" might be to the Lord. In the case of His statement at the end of Revelation - that short time frame is at least 2000 years.
And those grafted in might be cut out for unbelief or God's Way ? (etc unobedience? ). Those cut out once, might be grafted back in because of belief, or even just God's Way?
Again, stick with Scripture. Added information is not needed, and as seen is often not true and not useful.This part, I find, is interesting. How does this idea work?
Do you see that, according to dispensational theology, heaven is to be brought to earth as in it is 'here' vs. 'out there' somewhere?
Don't read Paul 1 Cor 15:1-4, for example, into John 3:16, which almost every Christian who is not a dispensationalist does. Instead understand John 3:16 thru John himself in John 20:31
Isolated this one statement. It is obviously false.Jesus came in wrath in AD 70 to destroy Jerusalem.
All Scripture in Total Complete Harmony, Each and Every Part, has nothing to do with a doctrine like that. (man made or demon inspired). Most all the world is tricked though, including Christians too often.I think those passages in Romans repudiate the "once saved always saved" doctrine. Paul is telling us as those who have been newly grafted into "Israel" can, by thinking we've got it made, suffer the same peril as those Jews who refused to place their faith in the promised Messiah. He is also pointing out that the new Israel contains both Jews and Gentiles.
How is it false? In fact in Matt. 24 he says this is what he is going to do. He says his coming 'on the clouds, in great glory' will be witnessed by the people of that generation. It occurred some 40 years after he spoke the words. Josephus tells us that the Christians all made it out.Isolated this one statement. It is obviously false.
Truly I tell you, this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened.
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