The Fatal Flaw in Dispensationalism

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For that particular passage, you need to stick to the KJV

7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;

8 (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles

9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.

If you read the other versions, including the NKJV unfortunately, they tend to use the English word "to" instead of "of".

I believe the KJV is the divinely inspired Word of God for our day. It doesn't change anything in what I said with the Word. Paul preached to the Jews in the synagogues before preaching to the Gentiles.

"Paul was pressed in the spirit, and testified to the Jews that Jesus was Christ. And when they opposed themselves, and blasphemed, he shook his raiment, and said unto them, Your blood be upon your own heads; I am clean: from henceforth I will go unto the Gentiles."
(Acts of the Apostles 18:5-6).

This is why Paul went to the Gentiles. It was because they did not receive his message. It was not because he taught something different than Peter.

However, Paul was a Jew. So if he was a Jew, then why would he teach that which did not apply to himself? Also, why did Paul write to other Jews if he was supposed to only write to the Gentiles?

For Peter says that his beloved brother Paul had also had written unto of whom Peter was writing to, as well.

"And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction." (2 Peter 3:15-16).

In addition, ...

What was Paul's opinion regarding the teachings or words of Jesus Christ?

“Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.”
(Colossians 2:8).

“If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness; He is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, whereof cometh envy, strife, railings, evil surmisings, Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.”
(1 Timothy 6:3-5).​

So Paul, Jesus, and Peter taught the same thing.

In fact, Mid Acts Dispensationalism is nothing new. Back in Paul's day, people were also wrongfully following Paul, too. For Paul said that there should not be divisions between Christ and what he taught (1 Corinthians 1:10-13); For Paul said, "Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?" (1 Corinthians 1:13).

For Paul said, if any man preaches another gospel, let him be accursed (Galatians 1:6-9). Soooo... if Peter or Jesus were preaching another gospel different than Paul's gospel, does that mean that they were accursed? No, of course not because it was all the same gospel.

Ephesians 4:5 says there is one faith. One faith means there is one gospel, and not two.

 

[Guojing]

So Paul, Jesus, and Peter taught the same thing.

In fact, Mid Acts Dispensationalism is nothing new. Back in Paul's day, people were also wrongfully following Paul, too. For Paul said that there should not be divisions between Christ and what he taught (1 Corinthians 1:10-13); For Paul said, "Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?" (1 Corinthians 1:13).

For Paul said, if any man preaches another gospel, let him be accursed (Galatians 1:6-9). Soooo... if Peter or Jesus were preaching another gospel different than Paul's gospel, does that mean that they were accursed? No, of course not because it was all the same gospel.

Ephesians 4:5 says there is one faith. One faith means there is one gospel, and not two.

Gospel merely means "good news". A question that will make it clear the extent of how you hold on to this "only one gospel" belief.

At Luke 9:6, it was stated

And they departed, and went through the towns, preaching the gospel, and healing every where.

In your view, what gospel were the 12 preaching there? Don't just say Jesus Christ here, be specific, what exactly about Jesus were they preaching?

 

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Gospel merely means "good news". A question that will make it clear the extent of how you hold on to this "only one gospel" belief.

At Luke 9:6, it was stated

And they departed, and went through the towns, preaching the gospel, and healing every where.

In your view, what gospel were the 12 preaching there? Don't just say Jesus Christ here, be specific, what exactly about Jesus were they preaching?

Jesus was living out the gospel that was to be preached. Jesus spoke of His death and resurrection to His disciples, but they did not understand fully what He meant. After Christ had risen, Jesus gave the apostles the great commission to preach the gospel, and to obey His commands (See: Matthew 28:19-20, Mark 16:15-16). In Acts chapter 2, at Pentecost, we learn that Peter told the Jews about Christ's resurrection (See: Acts of the Apostles 2:30-33), and crucifixion (See: Acts of the Apostles 2:36). The gospel was defined for us by Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, even though the 12 were spreading the gospel after Christ's ascension into Heaven in front of many witnesses.

 

[Guojing]

Jesus was living out the gospel that was to be preached. Jesus spoke of His death and resurrection to His disciples, but they did not understand fully what He meant. After Christ had risen, Jesus gave the apostles the great commission to preach the gospel, and to obey His commands (See: Matthew 28:19-20, Mark 16:15-16). In Acts chapter 2, at Pentecost, we learn that Peter told the Jews about Christ's resurrection (See: Acts of the Apostles 2:30-33), and crucifixion (See: Acts of the Apostles 2:36). The gospel was defined for us by Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, even though the 12 were spreading the gospel after Christ's ascension into Heaven in front of many witnesses.

You have yet to answer my question, "What gospel were the 12 preaching at Luke 9:6"?

 

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You have yet to answer my question, "What gospel were the 12 preaching at Luke 9:6"?

It was not another gospel. The "gospel of the kingdom" was a more simpler version of the gospel that Paul preached in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. They were still preaching Jesus for salvation. Jesus is the kingdom of Heaven. For Jesus said, "Again, the kingdom of heaven is like unto a merchant man, seeking goodly pearls: Who, when he had found one pearl of great price, went and sold all that he had, and bought it." (Matthew 13:45-46).

And Paul says,
6 "For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ.
7 But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us." (2 Corinthians 4:6-7).

The treasure in our earthen vessels or bodies is Jesus Christ!!!
Jesus is our pearl of great price!
Jesus is the kingdom of Heaven.
For you cannot have a kingdom without a king.
The Kingdom is within you.
Meaning, Jesus knocks at the door of every person's heart to come in.
Jesus said God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believes in Him shall have everlasting life (John 3:16).

For why would the prostitute not stop kissing Jesus's feet? It was because He forgave her of her many past sins. To believe in Jesus can forgive sins is to be a Savior. Jesus saved even before the cross. The primary message was salvation in the Messiah Jesus Christ.

 

[Guojing]

It was not another gospel. The "gospel of the kingdom" was a more simpler version of the gospel that Paul preached in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. They were still preaching Jesus for salvation. Jesus is the kingdom of Heaven. For Jesus said, "Again, the kingdom of heaven is like unto a merchant man, seeking goodly pearls: Who, when he had found one pearl of great price, went and sold all that he had, and bought it." (Matthew 13:45-46).

And Paul says,
6 "For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ.
7 But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us." (2 Corinthians 4:6-7).

The treasure in our earthen vessels or bodies is Jesus Christ!!!
Jesus is our pearl of great price!
Jesus is the kingdom of Heaven.
For you cannot have a kingdom without a king.
The Kingdom is within you.
Meaning, Jesus knocks at the door of every person's heart to come in.
Jesus said God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believes in Him shall have everlasting life (John 3:16).

For why would the prostitute not stop kissing Jesus's feet? It was because He forgave her of her many past sins. To believe in Jesus can forgive sins is to be a Savior. Jesus saved even before the cross. The primary message was salvation in the Messiah Jesus Christ.

Do you at least agree that the 12 could not have been preaching Jesus's death burial and resurrection in Luke 9:6?

 

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Do you at least agree that the 12 could not have been preaching Jesus's death burial and resurrection in Luke 9:6?

At the heart, the gospel is salvation in Jesus. Paul's clarification of the gospel with His death, burial, and resurrection does not make it entirely different gospel. The gospel of the Kingdom was a more simplistic form of the gospel in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, but at its core it is still salvation by faith in Jesus Christ as Savior. Remember, if anyone preaches another gospel different than Paul, they are accursed. So if somebody at that time was preaching the gospel of the kingdom from Jesus's teachings, and they did not know about Paul's gospel yet, they would technically be accursed according to you. But it was not another gospel, but it was merely a more simple version of the gospel. Jesus even revealed the gospel to his disciples before Jesus had died, and was risen, but they did not understand it at the time.

Jesus said He was the bread of life before the cross.
Jesus said come unto me before the cross.
Peter said Jesus had the words of eternal life.
It is silly to assume that these words on eternal life would change so radically after His death and resurrection. Three years of teaching down the drain.

 

[Guojing]

At the heart, the gospel is salvation in Jesus. Paul's clarification of the gospel with His death, burial, and resurrection does not make it entirely different gospel. The gospel of the Kingdom was a more simplistic form of the gospel in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, but at its core it is still salvation by faith in Jesus Christ as Savior. Remember, if anyone preaches another gospel different than Paul, they are accursed. So if somebody at that time was preaching the gospel of the kingdom from Jesus's teachings, and they did not know about Paul's gospel yet, they would technically be accursed according to you. But it was not another gospel, but it was merely a more simple version of the gospel. Jesus even revealed the gospel to his disciples before Jesus had died, and was risen, but they did not understand it at the time.

Firstly, Paul was not saved during then so stop using his warning in Galatians 1 everywhere as a magic wand.

Secondly, the message of the Gospel of the Kingdom to the Jews was very clear, "Repent and believe in Jesus as their promised Messiah and King, as foretold by the OT prophets".

That was the Gospel preached in Luke 9:6.

 

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Firstly, Paul was not saved during then so stop using his warning in Galatians 1 everywhere as a magic wand.

Secondly, the message of the Gospel of the Kingdom to the Jews was very clear, "Repent and believe in Jesus as their promised Messiah and King, as foretold by the OT prophets".

That was the Gospel preached in Luke 9:6.

Yeah, and it is not another gospel. It is a more simple version of the gospel. Think. If Jesus taught an entirely RADICALLY different gospel than Paul, then why on Earth did Jesus even bother to teach his disciples for three years? What a waste of time. Three years down the drain. Again, Jesus told his disciples of the gospel of his death and resurrection, but they did not get it. After Christ was risen: Jesus revealed the gospel in more detail to them of his death, and resurrection whereby they were able to then understand it; At Pentecost, Peter preached Christ's death, and resurrection and salvation in Jesus.

 

[Guojing]

Yeah, and it is not another gospel. It is a more simple version of the gospel. Think. If Jesus taught an entirely RADICALLY different gospel than Paul, then why on Earth did Jesus even bother to teach his disciples for three years? What a waste of time. Three years down the drain. Again, Jesus told his disciples of the gospel, but they did not get it. Jesus then revealed the gospel in more detail to them, because they started to preach it even at Pentecost.

Well the GOK required strict obedience to the Law of Moses, unlike now, so yes they are radically different.

It was for the Jews but since the nation rejected him, God wanted to make the Jews jealous.

Paul explained it well in Romans 11

11 I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.

God deliberately made it easy for us former Gentiles to be saved, because the Jews kept rejecting God, in order to provoke the Jews to jealousy.

The Jews rejected God the Father in the OT by ignoring or stoning their prophets.
The Jews rejected God the Son in the 4 Gospels by putting him on the cross.
The Jews rejected God the Holy Spirit in Acts by stoning Stephen who was full of the Holy Spirit (Acts 7:55).

With the entire Trinity being rejected by the Jews, the last one to me is blaspheming against the Holy Spirit, which is an unforgivable sin under the Law of Moses, God finally unveiled his hidden plan to save the Gentiles independent of the Jews, a plan he had kept hidden since the world began (Ephesians 3:9).

Once you realized this, Ephesians 2 and 3 take on totally new meaning, and you as a former Gentile, will really praise God the Father for his wonderful plan. And you will not be upset that Jesus was only speaking to the Jews in the 4 Gospels.

 

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Well the GOK required strict obedience to the Law of Moses, unlike now, so yes they are radically different.

It was for the Jews but since the nation rejected him, God wanted to make the Jews jealous.

Paul explained it well in Romans 11

11 I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.

God deliberately made it easy for us former Gentiles to be saved, because the Jews kept rejecting God, in order to provoke the Jews to jealousy.

The Jews rejected God the Father in the OT by ignoring or stoning their prophets.
The Jews rejected God the Son in the 4 Gospels by putting him on the cross.
The Jews rejected God the Holy Spirit in Acts by stoning Stephen who was full of the Holy Spirit (Acts 7:55).

With the entire Trinity being rejected by the Jews, the last one to me is blaspheming against the Holy Spirit, which is an unforgivable sin under the Law of Moses, God finally unveiled his hidden plan to save the Gentiles independent of the Jews, a plan he had kept hidden since the world began (Ephesians 3:9).

Once you realized this, Ephesians 2 and 3 take on totally new meaning, and you as a former Gentile, will really praise God the Father for his wonderful plan. And you will not be upset that Jesus was only speaking to the Jews in the 4 Gospels.

The Jews were supposed to be a nation that was to be a light to the Gentiles. The Israelites were supposed to evangelize the Gentiles.

"“And now the Lord says,
Who formed Me from the womb to be His Servant,
To bring Jacob back to Him,
So that Israel is gathered to Him
(For I shall be glorious in the eyes of the Lord,
And My God shall be My strength),
Indeed He says,
‘It is too small a thing that You should be My Servant
To raise up the tribes of Jacob,
And to restore the preserved ones of Israel;
I will also give You as a light to the Gentiles,
That You should be My salvation to the ends of the earth.’ ” (Isaiah 49:5-6).

However, seeing that the Israelites failed in their mission, Jesus (who is the ultimate Israelite) made that impossible mission as being possible.

Now, do not misunderstand me, I am not in disagreement that salvation first went out to the Israelites. Ministry focus is not the issue I have here. It is the content of the salvation message that you are proposing as being different. At the heart, the gospel of the Kingdom is essentially the same gospel that Paul preached (But it is a more simpler version).

Let me ask you. if the Jews did accept Jesus as their Savior, would that mean that Christ would not have to die for the sins of the world and then raise from the dead?

Surely not.

The gospel message would still be the same today even if the Jews accepted their Messiah. For God is not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. In other words, the gospel was revealed in full detail when the gospel event was accomplished by Christ.

 

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What if a person on their deathbed accepts Jesus Christ as their Savior and they seek forgiveness of their sins with Him and they did not get a chance to hear about the gospel message in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4? Are they condemned? I don't believe so. But if they lived and they read their Bible, and they ignored the gospel message in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, then there would be a major problem. For to whom much is given, much is required. I believe it is the same with the Trinity. A person may not know of the Trinity when they accept Jesus as their Savior, but if they later learn of the Trinity by Scripture and they reject that truth, they are not worshiping GOD in spirit and in truth at that point anymore. They would be then rejecting new revealed truth by God in regards to the faith.

 

[Guojing]

The Jews were supposed to be a nation that was to be a light to the Gentiles. The Israelites were supposed to evangelize the Gentiles.

"“And now the Lord says,
Who formed Me from the womb to be His Servant,
To bring Jacob back to Him,
So that Israel is gathered to Him
(For I shall be glorious in the eyes of the Lord,
And My God shall be My strength),
Indeed He says,
‘It is too small a thing that You should be My Servant
To raise up the tribes of Jacob,
And to restore the preserved ones of Israel;
I will also give You as a light to the Gentiles,
That You should be My salvation to the ends of the earth.’ ” (Isaiah 49:5-6).

However, seeing that the Israelites failed in their mission, Jesus (who is the ultimate Israelite) made that impossible mission as being possible.

Now, do not misunderstand me, I am not in disagreement that salvation first went out to the Israelites. Ministry focus is not the issue I have here. It is the content of the salvation message that you are proposing as being different. At the heart, the gospel of the Kingdom is essentially the same gospel that Paul preached (But it is a more simpler version).

Let me ask you. if the Jews did accept Jesus as their Savior, would that mean that Christ would not have to die for the sins of the world and then raise from the dead?

Surely not.

The gospel message would still be the same today even if the Jews accepted their Messiah. For God is not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. In other words, the gospel was revealed in full detail when the gospel event was accomplished by Christ.

Jesus would still have to die for Man's sins.

There are many ways that could have happened even if the Jewish nation did accept him in the 4 Gospels. The Romans were in charge of Israel then and they could still have forced it to happen

But that is history now.

But I am amused by your belief that "At the heart, the gospel of the Kingdom is essentially the same gospel that Paul preached (But it is a more simpler version)."

How can any gospel that requires strict obedience to the Law of Moses, some 613 of them, be simpler than one that doesn't? Oh well, you have the right to believe whatever you want to.

 

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Well the GOK required strict obedience to the Law of Moses, unlike now, so yes they are radically different.

No. While Jesus did confirm certain teachings of the Old Law during His earthly ministry, Jesus was also making changes to the Law (even before the New Covenant went officially into effect with His death).

How so?

Jesus clearly was making changes to the Law (even before the cross):
(Which means He was not teaching primarily Old Covenant, but New Covenant):

The Old Way says:
"Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth"
(Matthew 5:38 cf. Exodus 21:23-25).

The New Way (by Jesus) says:
"But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also." (Matthew 5:39).


The Old Way says:
"Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment" (Matthew 5:21 cf. Numbers 35:30-32).

The New Way (by Jesus) says:
"But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire." (Matthew 5:22).


The Old Way says:
"Again, ye have heard that it hath been said by them of old time, Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths:" (Matthew 5:34 cf. Numbers 30:1-2, Deuteronomy 23:21).

The New Way (by Jesus) says:
34 "But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne:
35 Nor by the earth; for it is his footstool: neither by Jerusalem; for it is the city of the great King.
36 Neither shalt thou swear by thy head, because thou canst not make one hair white or black.
37 But let your communication be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay: for whatsoever is more than these cometh of evil." (Matthew 5:34-37).


The Old Way says:
"And of thy mercy cut off mine enemies, and destroy all them that afflict my soul: for I am thy servant." (Psalms 143:12).

"And the city shall be accursed, even it, and all that are therein, to the LORD: only Rahab the harlot shall live, she and all that are with her in the house, because she hid the messengers that we sent." (Joshua 6:17).

"And they utterly destroyed all that was in the city, both man and woman, young and old, and ox, and sheep, and ass, with the edge of the sword." (Joshua 6:21).

16 "But of the cities of these people, which the LORD thy God doth give thee for an inheritance, thou shalt save alive nothing that breatheth:
17 But thou shalt utterly destroy them; namely, the Hittites, and the Amorites, the Canaanites, and the Perizzites, the Hivites, and the Jebusites; as the LORD thy God hath commanded thee" (Deuteronomy 20:16-17).

"They did not destroy the nations, concerning whom the LORD commanded them" (Psalms 106:34).

The New Way (by Jesus) says:
"But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you;" (Matthew 5:44).

Note: Yes, I am aware that the Old Way (Old Testament) also teaches to love one's enemies (Exodus 23:4-5) (Proverbs 25:21), but this was in context to their own Israelite people, and not pagan nations. Pagan nations were to be destroyed when God commanded the Israelites to destroy them. But Jesus taught a radically different way. Love your enemies, and do good to them that hate you, and to pray for those who persecute you.


The Old Way says:
20 "But if this thing be true, and the tokens of virginity be not found for the damsel:
21 Then they shall bring out the damsel to the door of her father's house, and the men of her city shall stone her with stones that she die: because she hath wrought folly in Israel, to play the harlot in her father's house: so shalt thou put evil away from among you.
22 If a man be found lying with a woman married to an husband, then they shall both of them die, both the man that lay with the woman, and the woman: so shalt thou put away evil from Israel." (Deuteronomy 22:20-22).

4 "They say unto him, Master, this woman was taken in adultery, in the very act.
5 Now Moses in the law commanded us, that such should be stoned: but what sayest thou?" (John 8:4-5).

The New Way (by Jesus) says:
"He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her. " (John 8:7).


Even after the cross, there were changes being made:

The Old Covenant says this about circumcision:
"And the uncircumcised man child whose flesh of his foreskin is not circumcised, that soul shall be cut off from his people; he hath broken my covenant." (Genesis 17:14).

Yet, the New Covenant says this about circumcision:
"Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing."
(Galatians 5:2).


The Old Covenant says this about the Sabbath:
32 "And while the children of Israel were in the wilderness, they found a man that gathered sticks upon the sabbath day.
33 And they that found him gathering sticks brought him unto Moses and Aaron, and unto all the congregation.
34 And they put him in ward, because it was not declared what should be done to him.
35 And the Lord said unto Moses, The man shall be surely put to death: all the congregation shall stone him with stones without the camp.
36 And all the congregation brought him without the camp, and stoned him with stones, and he died; as the Lord commanded Moses." (Numbers 15:32-36).

Yet, the New Covenant says this about the Sabbath:
"Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:" (Colossians 2:16).

So it appears things have changed.

This makes sense because again, Hebrews 7:12 says the Law has changed.

"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law."
(Hebrews 7:12).

“For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.”
(John 1:17).

Jesus said,
"Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil." (Matthew 5:17).


Jesus came not to abolish the Law (in the sense of destroying all forms of Law), but Jesus came to fulfill the Law (i.e. to nail to the cross those ordinances that were against us [like the Old Covenant ceremonial laws], and Jesus came to give us a more fulfilled and perfect way of obeying God via the commands that come directly from Him and His followers). For Jesus offered a more perfect way of loving God, and loving our neighbor (Which of course is only possible via if we are first saved by God's grace through faith).

 

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How can any gospel that requires strict obedience to the Law of Moses, some 613 of them, be simpler than one that doesn't? Oh well, you have the right to believe whatever you want to.

I just answered it before I seen your post here. See post #254.

 

[Guojing]

I just answered it before I seen your post here. See post #254.

And I have already explained to you Matthew's version of the GC where it was explicitly stated by the resurrected Christ himself, Matthew 28

18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

Your view is simply not supported by Scripture

 

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And I have already explained to you Matthew's version of the GC where it was explicitly stated by the resurrected Christ himself, Matthew 28

18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

Your view is simply not supported by Scripture

You are not reading my points in Scripture. Please go back and read them. Jesus made changes to the Law before the cross. This proves that He was teaching something different than just the Law of Moses alone. When Christ died upon the cross, the New Covenant officially began, and the Old Law (the 613) had ended, and a New Covenant with New commands would then begin to be formed with the NT Scriptures.

Also, Paul says if any man does not agree with the words of Jesus Christ and the doctrine according to godliness, he is proud and he knows nothing (1 Timothy 6:3-4). Personally, I would not want to disagree with the words of Jesus. But you are free to believe as you wish.

 

[Guojing]

You are not reading my points in Scripture. Please go back and read them. Jesus made changes to the Law before the cross. This proves that He was teaching something different than just the Law of Moses alone. When Christ died upon the cross, the New Covenant officially began, and the Old Law (the 613) had ended, and a New Covenant with New commands would then begin to be formed with the NT Scriptures.

Also, Paul says if any man does not agree with the words of Jesus Christ and the doctrine according to godliness, he is proud and he knows nothing (1 Timothy 6:3-4). Personally, I would not want to disagree with the words of Jesus. But you are free to believe as you wish.

He didn't change it, he amplified it.

Again why do you keep using Paul here, we are talking about the time before Paul got saved in Acts 9. Is it that difficult for you not to anticipate revelation.

 

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He didn't change it, he amplified it.

In some cases before the cross: Jesus made some amendments to God's law that would make it more difficult like looking upon a woman in lust being the equivalent of adultery. In other cases, they were outright changes. Jesus quoted OT Scripture about an eye for an eye, but He said, "BUT I say unto you, turn the other cheek." That is a radically different thing than fair justice. Jesus also mentioned oath taking in the OT, but He now says do not make any oaths at all. This is a change in the Law. Hebrews 7:12 even says there is a change of the Law. Read it.

Again why do you keep using Paul here, we are talking about the time before Paul got saved in Acts 9. Is it that difficult for you not to anticipate revelation.

I am using Paul because he testifies in 1 Timothy 6:3-4 that if any man does not agree with the words of Jesus Christ they are proud and they know nothing. This means if we do not agree with the words of Jesus in the gospels, we are proud and we know nothing. Jesus was not around to give any more words directly anymore. So this means Paul is referring to the words of Jesus from the gospels.

Besides, the New Covenant tells us what laws no longer apply; The ceremonial laws have ended (See Colossians 2:14, and Colossians 2:16-17). The OT judicial laws have ended; For Jesus taught that the woman caught in the act of adultery was not to be stoned (Which is contrary to OT law) (See John 8:1-12). The laws on animal sacrifices had ended with Christ's death upon the cross because the temple veil was torn from top to bottom (Matthew 27:51).

In the book of Galatians, Romans, and 1 Corinthians: Paul did not refer to all law in general, but he actually referred to the Law of Moses (the 613 laws given to Israel) as a contract as a whole. Paul said we are not under the Law (i.e. the Law of Moses). Paul did not refer how we are not under the Law of Christ (Galatians 6:2). Paul did not refer how we are not under the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus (Romans 8:2). Paul did not refer to how we are not under the Royal Law (James 2:8). Paul did not refer to how we are not under the Perfect Law of Liberty (James 1:25).

 

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He didn't change it, he amplified it.

Again why do you keep using Paul here, we are talking about the time before Paul got saved in Acts 9. Is it that difficult for you not to anticipate revelation.

By what you said so far: I have gotten the impression that you believe the words of Jesus are for a different people group and not for believers today. If this is so, then why does Jesus say this?

"He that... receiveth not my words, ...the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day." (John 12:48).

For you, these words are to be tossed aside if you believe Jesus's earthly ministry was something exclusively to a certain people group in the past alone.

Three years of the disciples training by Jesus would go down the drain.