yeshuasavedme posted in message #14:
Originally Posted by Bible2:
That translation isn't required by the original
Hebrew. ...
It is a plain, unadulaterated, unmessed with, not
added to, unbiased translation.
All of that could be true, and yet it still could be
a mistranslation in that it misses the intent of the
original Hebrew. There's no proof that "He hath set
his tabernacle in the sun" is what was intended by
the original Hebrew of Psalms 19:4b.
yeshuasavedme posted in message #14:
Untranslated, the Hebrew in that line reads "set
tabernacle sun".
But that still wouldn't require the translation "He
hath set his tabernacle in the sun", for the context
shows that the Hebrew is talking about God
figuratively setting in the heavens (the sky) a
tabernacle for the sun:
"The heavens declare the glory of God; and the
firmament sheweth his handywork. Day unto day
uttereth speech, and night unto night sheweth
knowledge. There is no speech nor language, where
their voice is not heard. Their line is gone out
through all the earth, and their words to the end of
the world. In them hath he set a tabernacle for the
sun, Which is as a bridegroom coming out of his
chamber, and rejoiceth as a strong man to run a race.
His going forth is from the end of the heaven, and
his circuit unto the ends of it: and there is nothing
hid from the heat thereof" (Psalms 19:1-6).
This is a perfectly valid translation of the Hebrew,
and "In them hath he set a tabernacle for the sun"
is much more in line with the context both preceding
and following that statement.
yeshuasavedme posted in message #14:
By a search of the matter I discovered that there
were ancient Believers who understood the line to
read, "He set His tabernacle in the sun", as their
writings show. Theodotus, using the Septuagint, wrote
of that line and made comments on it, in the second
or third century, also another writer did, but I will
have to find who that was, I forgot; nevertheless,
unbelievers have discarded the clear statement of the
Word of God because they cannot accept it, but that
does not change what God said.
"He set His tabernacle in the Sun".
Just because one finds some writers who agree with
a certain translation doesn't mean that those writers
or that translation are correct. One has to look at
the original Hebrew and its context to see what is
the most likely intending meaning of the Hebrew.
And one can't suddenly jump from a few writers'
opinions to claiming that those opinions are somehow
proof of the "clear statements of the Word of God".
There's no logical connection between the two.
Nothing requires that God ever intended the original
Hebrew of Psalms 19:4b to be understood or translated
as "He hath set his tabernacle in the sun".
yeshuasavedme posted in message #14:
There is, in the Word, a created temple in the
created heavens, from which YHWH comes down, looks
down, and from where all things are seen.
There is indeed a created temple in the created
heavens (e.g. Revelation 15:8), but it's in the
third heaven (cf. 2 Corinthians 12:2b), the spiritual
realm where God's throne is (Revelation 4:2), not the
second heaven, outer space, filled with 100 billion
times 100 billion different suns (cf. Genesis 15:5).
Also, it must be noted that God's created heavenly
tabernacle isn't the same as His created heavenly
temple, for His created heavenly tabernacle is the
created heavenly city of New Jerusalem (Revelation
21:2-3), in which there is no created temple
(Revelation 21:22).
yeshuasavedme posted in message #14:
From the portion of His light that shone on Egypt,
He covered it with sackcloth, so to speak, and Egypt
had darkness so thick that no one moved from his
place for three days, yet He continued to light
Goshen, the area where His namesake people dwelt.
Exodus 10:22 could simply refer to God causing a
thick sandstorm in Egypt which blocked out the light
from the sun for three days.
All Exodus 10:23b says is that the children of Israel
had light "in their dwellings", which could simply
mean that God didn't let the wind from the sandstorm
blow out the lamps in their houses, as He could have
caused it to blow out all the lamps in the houses of
the Egyptians.
Nothing in Exodus 10:22-23 teaches or requires that
God lives in the sun.
yeshuasavedme posted in message #14:
Another time, Joshua commanded the sun and mood to
stand still, and they stood still in the heavens for
"36 moments" of the day, as the Book of Jasher
records "Behold, is it not written in the Book of
Jasher".
The sun and moon appearing to stand still in the sky
for about a whole day (Joshua 10:13) was a great
miracle, but still nothing about it teaches or
requires that God lives in the sun.
Why would anyone want to think that God lives in the
sun instead of above the entire universe in His own
created spiritual realm of the third heaven?