The definition of Bible from World Scope Encyclopedia reads: "The book held by Christians and Jews to contain the word of God and to be of divine authority. The word Bible is derived from Medieval Latin,"biblia" in the singular number, and means a book. The Greek form of the word is a plural and means books. As commonly used it signifies the book, in comparison with which other books or writings are unworthy; or if they be called books, then the Bible becomes the book of books. The Latin word scriptura = writing, scripturae = writings, convey the idea that the scriptures are the only writings worthy of being called writings; therefore, they are of higher standing than all other books.”
Why don't you let the Bible itself define what it is? You have offered here something of the etymology of the word "Bible," and an academic definition of the term, but the Bible says about itself a great deal more.
With that established, let me say that any knowledge that man has of God he got it out of the Bible.
Oh? The Bible says that God reveals Himself to humanity in Creation and in the Moral Law written on the hearts of all people, as well.
Romans 1:19-20
19 because that which is known of God is manifest in them; for God manifested it unto them.
20 For the invisible things of him since the creation of the world are clearly seen, being perceived through the things that are made, even his everlasting power and divinity; that they may be without excuse:
Psalm 19:1
1 The heavens declare the glory of God; And the firmament shows his handiwork.
Romans 2:14-15
14 (for when Gentiles that have not the law do by nature the things of the law, these, not having the law, are the law unto themselves;
15 in that they show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness therewith, and their thoughts one with another accusing or else excusing them);
Who God is exactly is revealed to us in the Bible, but God's existence and something of His nature may be discerned in His Creation of the universe and in ourselves who bear His image.
All preachers preach, or teach their congregations from the Bible.
I wish this were true. More and more, Scripture features less and less in modern "relevant" preaching.
Also, let me show you that God's word is contained in a book.
This book of the law shall not depart out of thy mouth; but thou shalt meditate therein day and night, that thou mayest observe to do according to all that is written therei
n: for then thou shalt
make thy way prosperous, and then thou shalt have good success". (
Joshua 1:8) "
Seek ye out of the book of the LORD, and read". (
Isaiah 34:16) "The word that came to Jeremiah from the LORD, saying, Thus speaketh the LORD God of Israel, saying, Write thee all the words that I have spoken unto thee in a book". (
Jeremiah 30:1-2)
I totally agree with the assertion that the Bible is God's word to humanity, divinely-inspired by Him, in its original form without error. But to anchor this assertion in what the Bible claims about itself is to argue in a circle. This is like Bob saying, "I am Superman," and when he is asked how he might prove it, he replies, "Because I'm Superman and I'm telling you I am." Essentially, Bob has used his claim to be Superman as the proof that he is Superman. But Bob's claim is what is being challenged. It does not prove his claim that he is Superman, for Bob to use his claim as proof of itself. This is to argue in a circle. Likewise, to argue that God's word is God's word because it says it is, is to argue in a circle.
There are other, better ways to argue for the divine origin of the Bible than to refer to its own claim that it is as proof.
Fulfilled prophecy.
Thematic unity.
Historicity.
Survivability.
Explanatory power.
Impact on people and nations.
Personal experience.
(See: Evidence that Demands a Verdict - Josh and Andy McDowell)
Cumulatively, these things serve much better, I think, as an argument for the divine origin of Scripture than the circular argument you've put forward.
Let's look and see what the writings in the Bible are good for. "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect thoroughly furnished unto all good works.” (2Timothy 3:16-17)
And beyond these things? What is God's goal? Do you know?
1 Corinthians 1:9
2 Corinthians 13:14
1 John 1:3
The Bible contains the truth, and the truth is the Word of God, which is the real life of man. "
I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word. For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.
Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth." (St.
John 17:6, 8, &17) And Jesus answered him saying, "
It is written, that man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word of God." (St. Luke4: 4) "
It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life." (St.
John 6:63)
No, brother, it is not God's word, Scripture, that is the "real Life of Man," but
Jesus Himself, the Word. (
John 1:1-3; John 14:6; 1 John 5:11-12; Colossians 1:16-17)
Man disobeyed and brought death into the world; Jesus came and restored life unto man. "For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive." (1Corinthians 15:21-22) How did Jesus restore life to man? By coming into the world, living a perfect life before God the Father as an example to this disobedient and sinful man.
Jesus was only able to live such a life because he was, as God, already perfect. It is Christ's divinity as much as his moral perfection that makes him able to atone for sin "once for all." (
Hebrews 7:27; 1 Peter 3:18)
Transgression is braking of the commandments. What law was added because of the braking of the law? The sacrificial law!
And if there was no divine law at all? Would a "sacrificial law," then, be necessary? No. It is not, therefore, that the sacrificial law exists because of the breaking of God's law; the breaking of God's law wouldn't be possible if His laws didn't exist! And what about Cain and Abel who knew to offer sacrifices to God of a particular kind long before the laws given to Moses on Sinai?
What was the sacrificial law used for until Christ came?
Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. (
Galatians 3:24)
??? This isn't what Paul wrote in
Galatians 3:24. The word "sacrificial" doesn't appear in the verse, or in its immediate context, either. In his letter to the believers in Rome, Paul clarified the purpose of the law:
Romans 3:19-20
19 Now we know that whatever the law says it speaks to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be stopped, and the whole world may be held accountable to God.
20 For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.
Romans 7:7
7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law...
It is as a consequence of God giving His laws to Man that sacrifices for transgression of those laws became necessary. And this was anticipated by God, according to Paul, who knew that no one would be able to keep His laws perfectly and would, therefore, require a sacrifice for their sin beyond themselves. In time, in answer to this need, God sent His Son, the Final, Perfect Sacrifice for sin. This, then, was the ultimate purpose of God's law: to bring us to Christ, our Savior and, through him, into fellowship with God.
It is mere moralism that makes Christianity primarily about law-keeping. We live holy lives, obedient lives, in order that we may see God, that we might know and fellowship with Him. Obedience is not an end in itself.
Notice what's being said, "Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us." How was he made a curse for us? He took on our sins and redeemed us from the curse of the sacrificial law which could never take away sin.
This isn't what the verses and passages you're using actually say, though. We are not redeemed only from the sacrificial law, but from the broader moral law of God that makes such sacrifice necessary. If the latter did not exist, the former would not be necessary, which is why Paul never stipulates which law he was writing of in the way you are doing.
It seems you're angling toward legalism, toward moralism, by trying to confine Paul's meaning only to the laws of ceremony and sacrifice given to Moses. But in your effort to do so, you have insinuated words into Paul's teaching, adding to it, and twisting his teaching to suit your doctrinal agenda.
Galatians 3:2-3
2 This only would I learn of you, Did you receive the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are you so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are you now made perfect by the flesh?
Romans 3:20
20 ...by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin.
